ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following routes of administration should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central venous access device. TPN is a highly concentrated solution that provides all the nutrients a person needs intravenously. A central venous access device allows for the infusion of TPN into a large central vein, such as the superior vena cava, ensuring immediate access to the bloodstream for rapid absorption. Using other routes like subcutaneous (
A), intravenous (
B), or midline catheter (
D) may not be suitable due to the high osmolarity of TPN, which can cause irritation and damage to smaller veins.
Therefore, a central venous access device is the most appropriate and safe route for administering TPN.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer Igrasm 5mcg/kg/day subcutaneous to a client who weighs 143 lb. How many mcg should the nurse administer per day?
Correct Answer: 325 mcg
Rationale: The correct answer is 325 mcg. First, convert the client's weight from lb to kg: 143 lb ÷ 2.2 = 65 kg. Next, calculate the daily dose: 5 mcg/kg/day x 65 kg = 325 mcg/day.
Therefore, the nurse should administer 325 mcg per day.
Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct conversion of weight to kg and do not calculate the dose accurately based on the weight and prescribed dosage.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nondominant dorsal venous arch. This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement due to the larger vein diameter, ease of access, and reduced risk of complications like nerve damage or infiltration. The nondominant side is chosen to prevent disruption of daily activities. The dorsal venous arch is a superficial vein that is easily visible and palpable, making it suitable for successful cannulation. It also allows for optimal flow rate and minimizes the risk of phlebitis.
Choices B, C, and D are not ideal for various reasons such as smaller vein size, increased risk of nerve damage, and difficulty in accessing or securing the catheter.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking an osmotic laxative. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oliguria. Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose or polyethylene glycol, work by drawing water into the colon to soften the stool. If a client on osmotic laxatives is experiencing oliguria (decreased urine output), it can be a sign of fluid volume deficit due to the body trying to conserve water. Nausea (
A) is a common side effect of osmotic laxatives but not a specific indicator of fluid volume deficit. Weight gain (
B) is not associated with fluid volume deficit. Headache (
C) can be caused by various factors and is not a specific sign of fluid volume deficit.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A.
Total bilirubin levels should be reported because amitriptyline can cause hepatotoxicity. Elevated bilirubin could indicate liver damage. Option B, potassium level, is not typically affected by amitriptyline. Option C, hematocrit, and option D, WBC count, are not directly related to amitriptyline use. Options E, F, and G are not provided. In summary, the nurse should report elevated total bilirubin levels due to potential hepatotoxicity from amitriptyline.