ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for nifedipine. Which of the following findings should the nurse assess prior to administration of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension. Monitoring the client's blood pressure prior to administration is crucial as nifedipine can cause significant hypotension. Assessing respiratory rate, temperature, and oxygen saturation are important but not specific to nifedipine administration. Blood pressure is the most relevant parameter to monitor for this medication.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for carbamazepine for the treatment of seizures. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blurred vision. Carbamazepine is known to cause visual disturbances, including blurred vision, diplopia, and nystagmus. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for any changes in vision and report them to their healthcare provider. Insomnia (
B) is not a common adverse effect of carbamazepine. Metallic taste (
C) is associated with some medications but not typically with carbamazepine. Tachypnea (
D) refers to rapid breathing and is not a common adverse effect of carbamazepine.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count. Filgrastim is a medication that stimulates the production of white blood cells (WBCs). Monitoring the WBC count is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment, as an increase in WBC count indicates that the medication is working to boost the immune system. Monitoring potassium level (
A), BUN (
B), and INR (
C) are not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of filgrastim treatment. Potassium level is typically monitored for cardiac function, BUN for kidney function, and INR for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
Therefore, the WBC count is the most appropriate laboratory value to assess the response to filgrastim.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition and identifies that the client has hypoglycemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer IV dextrose. Hypoglycemia is a potential complication of parenteral nutrition. Administering IV dextrose is the appropriate action to increase the client's blood sugar levels quickly. Discontinuing the infusion (choice
A) would further decrease glucose supply. Warming formula (choice
C) is not directly related to treating hypoglycemia. Obtaining arterial blood gases (choice
D) is not necessary for managing hypoglycemia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has septic shock and is receiving dopamine by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. In septic shock, the body's blood pressure drops significantly, leading to hypotension. Dopamine is a vasopressor that helps increase blood pressure by constricting blood vessels.
Therefore, if the client's blood pressure remains low despite being on dopamine, it indicates that the current rate of infusion is not sufficient to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Increasing the rate of infusion would help improve blood pressure and perfusion.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the need for increasing the dopamine infusion rate in septic shock.