Questions 76

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ATI RN Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Exam A Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone and reports that they forgot to tell the provider that they take over-the-counter supplements. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following supplements?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so combining it with potassium supplements can lead to hyperkalemia, a serious condition with symptoms like muscle weakness and irregular heartbeat. Avoiding potassium supplements is crucial to prevent this interaction. Iron (
A), magnesium (
B), and calcium (
C) are not contraindicated with spironolactone. Iron can be taken separately from spironolactone. Magnesium and calcium are not typically affected by spironolactone.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is evaluating the progress of a school-age child who takes methylphenidate. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased impulsiveness. Methylphenidate is commonly used to treat ADHD by improving focus and reducing impulsivity. Decreased impulsiveness indicates that the medication is effectively managing the symptoms. B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the expected outcomes of methylphenidate therapy. Decreased abdominal pain (
B) and increased appetite (
C) are not typical indicators of methylphenidate effectiveness, and increased urine output (
D) is not a common side effect or indicator of its therapeutic effect.

Extract:

Nurses' Notes
2000:

Client is 38-year-old, G4 P3 at 38 weeks of gestation. Presents for evaluation of labor and spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM). Client states, "My water broke a couple of hours ago and is a greenish color." Client also reports contractions began about 4 hr ago and have become consistently stronger and closer together.

Electronic fetal monitor applied. Small amount of thin green fluid noted on perineal pad. Contraction palpated, lasted 40 seconds, moderate in intensity. Fetal heart rate (FHR) 165/min. Vaginal examination performed: cervix 4 cm dilated, 70% effaced, 0 station, vertex presentation.

Client reports a history of chronic hypertension that has been well-controlled during this pregnancy. Also states was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 28 weeks of gestation.


Question 3 of 5

A nurse in an antepartum unit is caring for a client., For each potential assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with chorioamnionitis or preeclampsia: A. Purulent amniotic fluid, B. Elevated uric acid level, C. Fever, D. Decreased platelet count, E. Blurred vision.

Correct Answer: A,C,B,D,E

Rationale: The correct answer is A, C, B, D, E.
A. Purulent amniotic fluid is consistent with chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid and membranes.
C. Fever is a common sign of both chorioamnionitis and preeclampsia but is more specific to chorioamnionitis.
B. Elevated uric acid level is more indicative of preeclampsia due to impaired kidney function.
D. Decreased platelet count is a sign of preeclampsia, indicating potential liver dysfunction.
E. Blurred vision is a hallmark sign of severe preeclampsia due to elevated blood pressure affecting the retina.

Therefore, the correct answer includes findings that are specific to both chorioamnionitis and preeclampsia, providing a comprehensive assessment approach.

Extract:


Question 4 of 5

A nurse is preparing regular and NPH insulin in the same syringe for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale:
Correct Answer: D


Rationale: Injecting air into the regular insulin vial before the NPH insulin vial prevents contamination. This technique avoids drawing NPH insulin into the regular insulin vial, which could alter the regular insulin's effectiveness. It also prevents air bubbles from being injected into the NPH vial, which could affect the accuracy of the NPH insulin dosage.

Summary of other choices:
A: Shaking both insulin vials before withdrawing doses can cause frothing and denaturation of insulin molecules, affecting their efficacy.
B: Administering the mixture within 5 minutes is not a recommended practice as it does not address the issue of potential contamination between the two insulins.
C: Withdrawing NPH insulin before regular insulin can lead to contamination and inaccurate dosages.
E, F, G: No information provided.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is teaching a client who has GERD about appropriate dietary choices. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White fish. White fish is a low-fat protein source that is gentle on the stomach and less likely to trigger acid reflux compared to other protein sources like red meat. It is also less acidic, making it a suitable choice for someone with GERD. Decaffeinated coffee (
A) can still trigger acid reflux due to its acidity.
Tomato soup (
B) is high in acidity and may exacerbate GERD symptoms. Hot cocoa (
D) is also acidic and can worsen GERD. In summary, white fish is the best option for someone with GERD due to its low fat and low acidity content.

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