ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Retake 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a gonococcal infection and has been prescribed an IM injection of ceftriaxone. The client refuses the medication because they are afraid of needles. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D: I will discuss other treatment options with your provider. This is the best choice because it shows empathy towards the client's fear of needles and acknowledges their concerns. The nurse is committed to finding an alternative treatment that the client is comfortable with, ensuring the client receives the necessary care while respecting their autonomy. This response promotes a collaborative approach to care and maintains a therapeutic nurse-client relationship.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: This response minimizes the client's fear but does not address the underlying issue of the client's refusal.
B: This response is coercive and does not consider the client's feelings, which can lead to non-compliance.
C: This response is threatening and may cause the client to feel guilt or fear, which is not conducive to effective communication.
E, F, G: These choices are not relevant to the situation and do not address the client's specific concerns.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT. The nurse should review the PT (Prothrombin Time) test before administering warfarin because warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, including factor II (prothrombin). Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting appropriately, as warfarin therapy requires a specific target range for PT known as the INR (International Normalized Ratio). Reviewing the PT will help the nurse assess the client's clotting status and adjust the warfarin dosage accordingly.
Choice A, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
Choice C, WBC (White Blood Cell count), and choice D,
Total Iron-Binding Capacity, are not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy and are unrelated to clotting function
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer pain medication to a postoperative client who had a total knee replacement and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ketorolac 15 mg IV. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAI
D) known for its potent analgesic effect. For a postoperative client with moderate pain (pain level of 5), ketorolac is an appropriate choice as it can provide effective pain relief. IV administration ensures rapid onset of action, making it suitable for acute pain management. Morphine (
A) is a strong opioid and may be reserved for severe pain. Amitriptyline (
B) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for chronic pain conditions, not acute postoperative pain. Acetaminophen (
D) is a mild analgesic and may not be sufficient for moderate pain.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ondansetron IV. Which of the following findings is an indication that the ondansetron is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is an antiemetic medication used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting.
Therefore, a decrease in nausea would indicate that the medication is effective in managing the client's symptoms. Increased urinary output (choice
A) is not directly related to the effectiveness of ondansetron. Reduced dizziness (choice
B) and absence of peripheral neuropathy (choice
C) are not common indicators of the drug's effectiveness in treating nausea. In summary, the primary goal of ondansetron is to reduce nausea, making choice D the most appropriate indication of its effectiveness in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer epinephrine IM. In an anaphylactic reaction, epinephrine is the drug of choice due to its rapid onset and vasoconstrictive effects which help reverse the symptoms. IM route ensures quick absorption. Giving diphenhydramine (
A) may be helpful for mild allergic reactions but is not as effective for anaphylaxis. Elevating legs (
B) is not a priority and may worsen the client's condition. Replacing IV fluid (
C) is not the immediate action needed.