ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a gonococcal infection and has been prescribed an IM injection of ceftriaxone. The client refuses the medication because they are afraid of needles. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: "I will discuss other treatment options with your provider." This is the best choice because it addresses the client's fear of needles while still ensuring appropriate care. By discussing alternative treatment options with the healthcare provider, the nurse can find a solution that the client is comfortable with, such as oral medication or another route of administration. This response shows respect for the client's autonomy and promotes a collaborative approach to care.
Choice A is incorrect because it uses a fear-based tactic to coerce the client into accepting the injection.
Choice B may be true, but it does not address the client's fear directly.
Choice D is incorrect because it is not accurate to say there are no other treatment options available.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving high-dose metoclopramide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tardive dyskinesia. High-dose metoclopramide can lead to this serious adverse effect, characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements. This is due to prolonged use of the medication affecting dopamine receptors in the brain. Dry cough (
A), black stools (
C), and oral candidiasis (
D) are not typically associated with metoclopramide use. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial as it can be irreversible, making it the priority adverse effect to watch for in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam for moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess for an adverse reaction to the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's oxygen saturation. When administering diazepam for conscious sedation, a potential adverse reaction is respiratory depression, which can lead to decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows the nurse to promptly identify any respiratory compromise. Checking urinary output (
B) is not directly related to assessing for adverse reactions to diazepam. Monitoring for seizure activity (
C) is important when administering medications that lower seizure threshold, but it is not a common adverse reaction of diazepam. Auscultating bowel sounds (
D) is unrelated to assessing for adverse reactions to diazepam.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for mirtazapine. Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the client's new prescription?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Linezolid. Linezolid is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), and concurrent use with mirtazapine, which is a serotonin modulator, can lead to serotonin syndrome due to excessive serotonin accumulation. Hydroxyzine (
A) is an antihistamine, Clozapine (
B) is an antipsychotic, and Nortriptyline (
D) is a tricyclic antidepressant, none of which are contraindicated with mirtazapine.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: PT (Prothrombin Time). Prothrombin Time measures the clotting ability of the blood, which is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clotting factors dependent on Vitamin K, such as prothrombin. By reviewing the PT before administering warfarin, the nurse can ensure the client's blood is clotting appropriately.
A: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) measures the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is not specific to warfarin therapy.
B:
Total iron-binding capacity is unrelated to warfarin therapy.
C: WBC (White Blood Cell count) is not necessary to review before administering warfarin.