ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer epinephrine IM. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps reverse severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, improving breathing, and increasing heart rate. Administering epinephrine promptly can prevent progression to life-threatening complications.
A: Giving diphenhydramine may help with itching and hives, but it does not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
C: Replacing the infusion with saline does not address the client's immediate need for treatment of anaphylaxis.
D: Elevating the client's legs and feet does not address the airway compromise and cardiovascular collapse seen in anaphylaxis.
In summary, administering epinephrine is crucial in managing an anaphylactic reaction due to its rapid onset of action and life-saving effects.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to titrate a continuous nitroprusside infusion for a client. The nurse should plan to titrate the infusion according to which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood pressure. When titrating a nitroprusside infusion, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator that can cause significant hypotension. The goal is to maintain a specific blood pressure range to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs without causing hypotension or hypertension. Monitoring urine output (
A), stroke volume (
B), and cardiac output (
D) may provide valuable information, but blood pressure is the most direct indicator of the drug's effect on the cardiovascular system. It is essential to titrate the infusion based on blood pressure changes to prevent adverse effects and ensure optimal patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prochlorperazine. This medication is an antiemetic, which helps to alleviate vomiting. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, reducing nausea and vomiting. Propafenone (
A) is an antiarrhythmic drug, Metformin (
B) is used for diabetes, and Simvastatin (
D) is a statin for cholesterol. These medications do not treat vomiting. It is important for the nurse to select the appropriate medication to address the client's symptoms effectively.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving high-dose metoclopramide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tardive dyskinesia. High-dose metoclopramide can lead to this serious adverse effect, characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements. This is due to prolonged use of the medication affecting dopamine receptors in the brain. Dry cough (
A), black stools (
C), and oral candidiasis (
D) are not typically associated with metoclopramide use. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial as it can be irreversible, making it the priority adverse effect to watch for in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 ml via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/ml. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 50
Rationale: The correct answer is 50 gtt/min.
To calculate the infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), we use the formula: (Volume to be infused in ml × drop factor) ÷ time in minutes. In this case, (100 ml × 15 gtt/ml) ÷ 30 min = 1500 gtt ÷ 30 min = 50 gtt/min. This ensures the correct administration rate for cefazolin. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation method or do not result in the appropriate infusion rate.