ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor the client for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polyuria. When a client is receiving gentamicin, the nurse should monitor for polyuria, which is excessive urination. This is important because gentamicin can cause kidney damage leading to decreased urine output or polyuria. Monitoring urine output can help detect early signs of nephrotoxicity. Prostephobia, Tireibus, and Tathyramda are not related to gentamicin therapy and are not typical side effects.
Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer Igrasm 5mcg/kg/day subcutaneous to a client who weighs 143 lb. How many mcg should the nurse administer per day?
Correct Answer: 325 mcg
Rationale:
To calculate the dose, first convert the client's weight from lb to kg (143 lb / 2.2 = 65 kg).
Then, multiply the weight (65 kg) by the dose (5 mcg/kg/day) to get the total dose per day (65 kg * 5 mcg/kg/day = 325 mcg).
Therefore, the correct answer is 325 mcg.
The other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation method or do not convert the weight to kg before multiplying by the dose.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for theophylline, a sustained-released capsule. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will need to have blood levels drawn." This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because theophylline levels need to be monitored to ensure the medication is at a therapeutic level and not reaching toxic levels. Regular blood tests are necessary to adjust the dosage as needed.
Choice A is incorrect because theophylline should not be taken with coffee as caffeine can interact with the medication.
Choice B is incorrect as the sustained-release capsule should not be opened or sprinkled in food as it can alter the drug absorption rate.
Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should actually be increased while on theophylline to prevent dehydration and help with drug elimination.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking an osmotic laxative. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oliguria. Osmotic laxatives work by drawing water into the colon to promote bowel movements, potentially leading to fluid loss. Oliguria, decreased urine output, indicates fluid volume deficit due to the body conserving water. Nausea (
A) is a common side effect of laxatives and does not directly indicate fluid volume deficit. Weight gain (
B) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Headache (
C) can occur for various reasons and is not a specific sign of fluid volume deficit in this context.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and reports pain. 1 hr after administration of prescribed morphine 10 mg IV. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fentanyl transmucosal. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that can be used for breakthrough pain in cancer patients already on around-the-clock opioid therapy like morphine. Fentanyl transmucosal provides rapid pain relief, making it suitable for managing sudden onset pain. Naloxone (
A) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose, not for routine pain management. Morphine tablet (
B) is not ideal for immediate pain relief due to slower onset. Lidocaine patch (
C) is used for localized pain, not systemic pain relief like in this case.
Therefore, fentanyl transmucosal is the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain effectively.