ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam 2 Final Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and is eager to return to school and participate in social events. The mother tells the nurse she is afraid to let him take part in physical activities at school. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: "Tell me more about how you are feeling about your son’s activities." This response demonstrates active listening and empathy, allowing the mother to express her concerns and fears regarding her son's activities. By encouraging open communication, the nurse can address the mother's specific worries and provide appropriate education and support.
Choice A does not address the mother's concerns directly, choice B is dismissive of the mother's feelings, and choice D suggests an extreme solution without exploring the mother's perspective. Overall, choice C is the most therapeutic as it focuses on understanding the mother's emotions and can help build trust and collaboration between the nurse and the mother in managing the child's diabetes.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a child who is allergic to penicillin. The nurse should clarify which of the following prescriptions with the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amoxicillin-clavulanate. This is the best choice because it is a combination antibiotic that does not contain penicillin. Amoxicillin-clavulanate is a suitable alternative for patients allergic to penicillin.
Choice A (Erythromycin) is an acceptable choice as it is not related to penicillin.
Choice B (Gentamicin) is not a suitable alternative for penicillin allergy.
Choice C (Amphotericin
B) is an antifungal agent and not an antibiotic. Other choices are not provided. In summary, the nurse should clarify the prescription for Amoxicillin-clavulanate with the provider to ensure the child's safety due to penicillin allergy.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (G85). Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should ask about recent influenza infection (
Choice
A) because Guillain-Barré syndrome is often preceded by a viral illness, such as influenza. This information is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Travel history (
Choice
B) is less relevant as the cause is more likely viral. Chronic alcohol abuse (
Choice
C) and multivitamin use (
Choice
D) are not directly related to Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is working with an emergency response team in caring for a group of people who may have been exposed to anthrax while doing farm work. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer antibiotic therapy. Anthrax is a bacterial infection that can be treated effectively with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin or doxycycline. Administering antibiotics promptly can prevent the development of severe symptoms and improve the prognosis for those exposed. Treating clients with an antitoxin (choice
A) is not the appropriate action as anthrax is caused by bacteria, not toxins. Initiating client decontamination (choice
C) is important but not the immediate priority; administering antibiotics takes precedence. Placing clients in isolation (choice
D) may be necessary to prevent the spread of infection but does not address the primary need for antibiotic treatment.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse on a medical unit is planning care for an older adult client who takes several medications. Which of the following prescribed medications places the client at risk for orthostatic hypotension?
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A, D, and E. Lisinopril (
A) is an ACE inhibitor known to cause orthostatic hypotension. Furosemide (
D) is a loop diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and subsequent hypotension. Doxazosin (E) is an alpha-blocker that can cause vasodilation, leading to orthostatic hypotension in older adults. Clopidogrel (
B) is an antiplatelet agent and Atorvastatin (
C) is a statin, which are not typically associated with orthostatic hypotension in older adults.