ATI RN
RN Maternal Nursing OB Newborn 2023 2024 Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A newborn who has not passed a meconium stool by 32 hours of age may have an obstruction or other gastrointestinal issue that requires further evaluation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn whose mother tested positive for heroin during pregnancy. The newborn is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Minimizing noise in the newborn's environment helps reduce overstimulation, which can exacerbate symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Naloxone is not used for this condition, and swaddling with legs extended is incorrect as it should be snug to provide comfort.
Question 3 of 5
What is the primary ethical principle guiding nursing practice in maternal and newborn healthcare?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Beneficence. In maternal and newborn healthcare, beneficence is the primary ethical principle guiding nursing practice. This principle emphasizes the obligation to act in the best interest of the mother and baby, promoting their well-being and health. Nurses are ethically bound to prioritize the welfare of their patients and provide care that maximizes benefits and minimizes harm. Autonomy (choice), non-maleficence (do no harm), and justice (fairness) are also important ethical principles in healthcare but beneficence takes precedence in maternal and newborn care due to the vulnerability of the patients and the need for optimal outcomes. Autonomy focuses on respecting the patient's rights to make decisions, non-maleficence emphasizes avoiding harm, and justice pertains to fairness in resource allocation. However, in the context of maternal and newborn healthcare, beneficence is the cornerstone principle to ensure the best possible care and outcomes for both mother and baby.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor and close to delivering the baby. This progression puts her at risk for postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding after childbirth due to the uterus not contracting effectively to control bleeding from the site where the placenta was attached. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Ectopic pregnancy is when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. B: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. C: Incompetent cervix is when the cervix begins to dilate and efface prematurely.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery for a client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 10. Using Nägele’s Rule, which of the following is the client’s estimated date of delivery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: May 17. Nägele's Rule calculates the estimated due date by adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, then subtracting 3 months, and finally adding 1 year. In this case, August 10 + 7 days = August 17. Subtracting 3 months gives us May 17. This date is the estimated due date of delivery.
Choice A (May 13) is too early, choice C (May 3) is also too early, and choice D (May 20) is too late based on Nägele's Rule.