ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who received the measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse reaction to the vaccination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Petechiae. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. This can indicate a serious adverse reaction to the vaccine, such as a bleeding disorder. Bradycardia (choice
A), tinnitus (choice
C), and blurred vision (choice
D) are not typical adverse reactions to the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, tinnitus is ringing in the ears, and blurred vision can be a side effect of various medications but are not commonly associated with this vaccine.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client. Using the rights of medication administration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure the right medication is administered to the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use two client identifiers prior to administering the medication. This is crucial to ensure the right medication is given to the right client. By using two identifiers (such as name and date of birth), the nurse verifies the client's identity accurately. This step helps prevent medication errors and ensures patient safety.
Option A is not as effective as it does not directly verify the client's identity. Option B involves verifying the written order but does not confirm the client's identity. Option D is after administration and does not prevent errors.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rifampin can cause a harmless side effect of orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine. This is important for the client to be aware of to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm.
Choice A is incorrect as rifampin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Choice B is incorrect as rifampin is usually taken once daily in the morning on an empty stomach.
Choice C is incorrect as wearing soft contact lenses is not recommended while on rifampin due to potential discoloration.
Extract:
Vital Signs Day 1:
Temperature 36.2 0 C (97.20 F) Respiratory rate 18/min
Heart rate 74/min
Blood pressure 1 1 8/68 mm Hg Sp02 96% on room air
Day 7:
Temperature 36.9 0 C (98.40 F) Heart rate 86/min
Respiratory rate 18/min Blood pressure 98/66 mm Hg Sp02 97% on room air
Provider Prescriptions Day 1:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 1 tablet daily Day
7:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 2 tablets daily
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication are A, B, D, E, and F.
A: Consumption of a high-protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication - Important to ensure medication efficacy.
B: You can experience vivid nightmares - Alerts the client to a potential side effect.
D: The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal - Helps manage a common side effect.
E: This medication can make you light-headed if you stand up too quickly from a seated or lying position - Warns about potential orthostatic hypotension.
F: You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements - Indicates a possible side effect to monitor.
These statements were selected for their relevance in preparing the client for potential side effects, interactions, and necessary precautions while taking the medication.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam for moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess for an adverse reaction to the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's oxygen saturation. When a client is receiving diazepam for sedation, respiratory depression is a potential adverse reaction. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows the nurse to assess for any signs of respiratory compromise. This is crucial as sedative medications can depress the respiratory drive. Auscultating bowel sounds (
B) and checking urinary output (
D) are not directly related to assessing for adverse reactions to diazepam. Monitoring for seizure activity (
A) would be more relevant if the client was receiving an antiepileptic medication. Thus, the most appropriate action to assess for an adverse reaction to diazepam is monitoring the client's oxygen saturation.