ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking warfarin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Melena. Melena indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of warfarin. It can lead to life-threatening complications such as hemorrhage. The nurse should report this finding immediately to the provider for prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent further harm to the client.
A: Fever may indicate an infection but is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
B: Abdominal cramping can be a common side effect of warfarin but is not as urgent as melena.
C: Hair loss is not a common side effect of warfarin and is not as concerning as melena.
In summary, melena is the priority finding to report because it suggests a severe and potentially life-threatening complication of warfarin therapy, while the other options are either less urgent or unrelated to warfarin side effects.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to transcribe a prescription for a client that reads 'ondansetron 8 mg by mouth every 12 hr PRN.' Which of the following parts of the prescription should the nurse clarify with the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reason. The nurse should clarify the reason for the prescription with the provider because it is important to understand the underlying condition or symptoms the medication is intended to treat. This information helps ensure the appropriateness of the prescription and aids in monitoring the client's response to the medication. Clarifying the dose (
A), route (
B), and frequency (
C) are essential but the reason (
D) behind the prescription is crucial for safe and effective medication administration.
Choices E, F, and G are not applicable in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ondansetron IV. Which of the following findings is an indication that the ondansetron is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting.
Therefore, a decrease in nausea indicates that the medication is effective in managing the client's symptoms. Reduced dizziness (
B) and absence of peripheral neuropathy (
D) are not directly related to the action of ondansetron. Increased urinary output (
C) is not a typical effect of ondansetron.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prochlorperazine. This medication is an antiemetic that helps to control severe vomiting. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, reducing nausea and vomiting. Propafenone (
A) is an antiarrhythmic drug, not indicated for vomiting. Simvastatin (
B) is a statin used for cholesterol management, unrelated to vomiting. Metformin (
D) is an antidiabetic drug, not used for vomiting. In summary, prochlorperazine is the appropriate choice for managing severe vomiting due to its antiemetic properties.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rifampin can cause a harmless side effect of turning urine, saliva, sweat, and tears orange. This is important for the client to be aware of to prevent unnecessary worry or concern.
Choice A is incorrect because rifampin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Choice B is incorrect as rifampin is usually taken on an empty stomach.
Choice C is incorrect as wearing soft contact lenses is not recommended due to the potential for discoloration.