ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking phenelzine and reports eating aged cheese. Which of the following is a manifestation of an interaction between the medication and the food?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that can interact with tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese, leading to a hypertensive crisis. Tyramine in aged cheese can displace norepinephrine from nerve terminals, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure.
A: Somnolence is a common side effect of phenelzine but is not directly related to the interaction with aged cheese.
B: Diarrhea is not a typical manifestation of the interaction between phenelzine and aged cheese.
C: Bradycardia is not associated with the interaction between phenelzine and aged cheese; it is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions.
E, F, G: No further choices provided.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased ascites. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is commonly used in cirrhotic patients to decrease fluid retention and ascites. As the medication helps to increase urine output and reduce fluid accumulation in the abdomen, a decrease in ascites would indicate that the client is responding positively to the treatment. Increased energy (choice
A) and increased appetite (choice
D) are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating cirrhotic ascites. Decreased jaundice (choice
B) may improve with liver function but is not a specific response to spironolactone.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rifampin can cause a harmless side effect of orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine. This is important for the client to be aware of to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm.
Choice A is incorrect as rifampin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Choice B is incorrect as rifampin is usually taken once daily in the morning on an empty stomach.
Choice C is incorrect as wearing soft contact lenses is not recommended while on rifampin due to potential discoloration.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated hematocrit level. In fluid volume deficit, there is a decrease in blood volume, leading to an increase in the concentration of red blood cells (hematocrit). This is a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygen delivery. Weight gain (choice
A) and distended neck veins (choice
B) are indicative of fluid volume excess. Shortness of breath (choice
C) is a common symptom of heart failure but not specific to fluid volume deficit.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has anxiety and is taking buspirone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Buspirone can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its potential to lower heart rate. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, which can be dangerous if severe. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's heart rate regularly when taking buspirone. Hypoglycemia (
A), hypothermia (
C), and hypokalemia (
D) are not typically associated adverse effects of buspirone.
Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for bradycardia in a client taking buspirone.