ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn level 3 Final Exam 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is 27 weeks of gestation and has pre eclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 60,000/mm. In pre-eclampsia, platelet count can decrease due to the risk of developing HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia. Thrombocytopenia can lead to bleeding complications and is a serious concern in pregnancy. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for timely intervention.
Incorrect choices:
A: Hemoglobin level within normal range, not a priority.
C: Creatinine level within normal range, not directly related to pre-eclampsia.
D: Urine protein concentration of 200 mg/24hr is indicative of proteinuria, a common finding in pre-eclampsia, but not as critical as low platelet count.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a full-term newborn arm admission to the nursery. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Single Palmar creases - Down syndrome. A single palmar crease, also known as a simian crease, is a physical characteristic often seen in individuals with Down syndrome. The presence of a single palmar crease should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible confirmation of a Down syndrome diagnosis. Transient circumoral cyanosis (choice
A) is common in newborns and usually resolves on its own. Subconjunctival hemorrhage (choice
C) and rust stain urine (choice
D) are also common findings in newborns and do not typically require immediate provider notification.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client about caring for her five-year 5day old male newborn at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify your baby's pediatrician if he urinates less than 6 times per day. This is important because it could indicate dehydration or other medical issues. A: Retracting the foreskin to clean the penis is not recommended as it can cause harm. B: Using triple antibiotic ointment on the umbilical cord can delay healing and increase infection risk. C: Swaddling tightly with legs extended can increase the risk of hip dysplasia. Overall, D is the correct choice as it focuses on monitoring the baby's health and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a newborn who is scheduled to start phototherapy using a lap. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensure the newborn's eyes are closed beneath the shield. During phototherapy, the newborn's eyes must be protected from the light to prevent damage. Placing a shield over the eyes helps to minimize exposure.
Choice A is incorrect because lotions can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy.
Choice B is incorrect as clothing can also block the light needed for therapy.
Choice D is incorrect as giving glucose water is not necessary for phototherapy and may not be appropriate for a newborn.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painless, vaginal bleeding. In placenta previa, the placenta implants low in the uterus, covering the cervix, leading to painless bleeding in the third trimester. A: Firm rigid abdomen is associated with abruptio placentae. C: Uterine hypertonicity is seen in conditions like uterine rupture. D: Persistent headache is not a typical finding in placenta previa.