ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Retake 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has septic shock and is receiving dopamine by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. In septic shock, dopamine is used to increase blood pressure by improving cardiac output. Hypotension indicates that the current rate of infusion is not effectively addressing the low blood pressure, so increasing the infusion rate would help improve perfusion to vital organs. Extravasation (choice
A) would indicate a need to stop the infusion, while headache (choice
C) and chest pain (choice
D) are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of the dopamine infusion in treating hypotension in septic shock.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who will receive total parenteral nutrition (TPN) at home. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instruct the client to weigh themselves daily and record their weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial to assess fluid status and nutritional status for clients receiving TPN. Weight changes can indicate fluid retention or dehydration. It helps healthcare providers adjust the TPN formula accordingly.
A: Incorrect. Central line dressing changes are typically done every 48 to 72 hours to reduce the risk of infection.
C: Incorrect. TPN containers should be changed every 24 hours due to the risk of bacterial contamination.
D: Incorrect. The rate of TPN infusion should never be adjusted without healthcare provider approval to avoid complications like hyperglycemia or electrolyte imbalances.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam for moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess for an adverse reaction to the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's oxygen saturation. This is important because diazepam can cause respiratory depression, leading to decreased oxygen saturation. By monitoring oxygen saturation, the nurse can quickly identify any adverse reactions related to respiratory function. Option A is incorrect because diazepam does not typically cause seizure activity. Option B is not directly related to assessing for adverse reactions to diazepam. Option D is not relevant to monitoring for adverse reactions to sedation. Overall, monitoring oxygen saturation is the most appropriate action to assess for adverse reactions to diazepam in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing opioid toxicity. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naloxone. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid toxicity as it competitively inhibits the binding of opioids at mu, kappa, and delta receptors. This reverses the respiratory depression and CNS depression caused by opioids. Atropine (
B) is used for bradycardia, Midazolam (
C) is a sedative, and Dexamethasone (
D) is a corticosteroid. These medications are not indicated for opioid toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client whose current bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has finished infusing, and the next bag is not yet available. Which of the following fluids should the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dextrose 10% in water. When TPN is not available, dextrose 10% in water can provide some glucose to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN bag is ready. Lactated Ringer's (
A) does not provide glucose and is not suitable for this situation. 0.45% sodium chloride (
C) and 0.9% sodium chloride (
D) are isotonic solutions and do not provide the necessary glucose.