ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 IV Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression. Oxycodone is an opioid that acts on the central nervous system, specifically the brainstem, to depress respiratory drive. This leads to a decrease in respiratory rate. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Oxycodone does not directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. C: Oxycodone does not block sodium channels to suspend nerve conduction. D: Oxycodone does not directly promote vasodilation of cranial arteries. In summary, the respiratory depression caused by oxycodone is due to its effect on the central nervous system, not its actions on prostaglandin synthesis, sodium channels, or cranial arteries.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to apply a fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Press the patch firmly into place using the palm of the hand for 30 seconds. This action helps ensure proper adhesion of the fentanyl patch to the skin, promoting consistent drug delivery. Pressing the patch helps create better contact between the patch and the skin, enhancing absorption. It is important to press the patch firmly but gently to avoid damaging the patch or irritating the skin.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Cleaning the application area with an alcohol swab is not necessary and may irritate the skin.
B: Applying a warm compress may alter drug absorption and is not recommended for fentanyl patches.
D: Discarding the used patch in a clear plastic bag and placing it in the trash is correct for disposal but not related to applying the patch.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of cardiac arrhythmias and is taking verapamil. For which of the following reasons should the nurse consult the pharmacist?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Consulting the pharmacist to assess the compatibility of verapamil with newly ordered medications is crucial because verapamil is known to have significant drug interactions, especially with other medications that affect heart rhythms. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can potentiate the effects of other antiarrhythmic drugs, leading to serious cardiac complications. By consulting the pharmacist, the nurse can prevent potential drug interactions and ensure the client's safety.
Option B is incorrect because reporting the client's refusal to take verapamil does not require pharmacist consultation but rather involves addressing the client's compliance issues directly. Option C is incorrect because requesting a change in the dosage of verapamil should be discussed with the prescriber, not the pharmacist. Option D is incorrect because verifying the frequency of administration of verapamil can be done by referring to the medication order without pharmacist consultation.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ceftriaxone intravenously. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Allergic reactions to ceftriaxone can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, causing hypotension. This is due to the release of histamines in response to the medication, leading to vasodilation and loss of vascular tone. Polyuria, nausea, and bradycardia are not typical manifestations of an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone. Polyuria may indicate a kidney issue, nausea could be a common side effect, and bradycardia is usually not associated with allergic reactions. It is important for the nurse to recognize hypotension as a potential allergic reaction to promptly intervene and prevent further complications.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. When a client taking lithium starts a new exercise program, they may sweat more, leading to sodium loss. This can result in hyponatremia, which is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with lithium therapy. Symptoms of hyponatremia include confusion, headache, muscle weakness, and nausea.
A: Hypokalemia is not typically associated with lithium therapy or exercise programs.
C: Hypocalcemia is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with lithium therapy or exercise.
D: Hypomagnesemia is also not a common electrolyte imbalance related to lithium or exercise.
Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate electrolyte imbalance to assess in this scenario.