ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: C - Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression.
Rationale: Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts on the central nervous system to provide pain relief. One of the common side effects of opioids is respiratory depression, which can lead to a decreased respiratory rate. This occurs because opioids suppress the activity of the brainstem respiratory centers, leading to decreased drive to breathe and ultimately slowing down the respiratory rate.
Therefore, in this scenario, the client's low respiratory rate of 8/min is likely due to the central nervous system depression caused by oxycodone.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
A: Oxycodone blocking the sodium channel suspending nerve conduction is not the mechanism behind the respiratory depression seen with opioids.
B: Oxycodone promoting vasodilation of cranial arteries is not related to the respiratory depression caused by opioids.
D: Oxycodone inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis is not the mechanism responsible for the respiratory
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 ml- via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is I5 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 50 gtt/min.
To calculate the IV infusion rate, we first convert 30 minutes to seconds (30 min x 60 sec/min = 1800 sec).
Then, we use the formula: (Volume to infuse in ml / time in seconds) x drop factor = gtt/min. Substituting the values, we get (100 ml / 1800 sec) x 15 gtt/ml = 0.833 gtt/sec. Since we need the answer in gtt/min, we convert 0.833 gtt/sec to gtt/min by multiplying by 60, resulting in 49.98 gtt/min, which rounds up to 50 gtt/min. This is the correct rate for administering cefazolin over 30 minutes. Other choices are incorrect because they do not yield the appropriate infusion rate based on the calculations.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to transcribe a prescription for a client that reads 'ondansetron 8 mg by mouth every 12 hr PRN.' Which of the following parts of the prescription should the nurse clarify with the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reason. The nurse should clarify the reason for the prescription with the provider because "PRN" (pro re nata) indicates that the medication should be taken as needed for a specific condition, such as nausea or vomiting. Understanding the reason for the medication helps ensure appropriate administration and monitoring.
A: Dose - The dose is clearly stated as 8 mg, so there is no need for clarification.
B: Route - The route is specified as by mouth, which is a common and appropriate route for ondansetron.
C: Frequency - The frequency is every 12 hours, so there is no ambiguity in this aspect of the prescription.
In summary, clarifying the reason for the PRN prescription is essential for safe and effective medication administration, making option D the correct choice for clarification.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for nifedipine. Which of the following findings should the nurse assess prior to administration of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension. Monitoring the client's blood pressure prior to administration is crucial as nifedipine can cause significant hypotension. Assessing respiratory rate, temperature, and oxygen saturation are important but not specific to nifedipine administration. Blood pressure is the most relevant parameter to monitor for this medication.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for carbamazepine for the treatment of seizures. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blurred vision. Carbamazepine is known to cause visual disturbances, including blurred vision, diplopia, and nystagmus. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for any changes in vision and report them to their healthcare provider. Insomnia (
B) is not a common adverse effect of carbamazepine. Metallic taste (
C) is associated with some medications but not typically with carbamazepine. Tachypnea (
D) refers to rapid breathing and is not a common adverse effect of carbamazepine.