ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct Answer: C - Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression.
Rationale: Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts on the central nervous system to provide pain relief. One of the common side effects of opioids is respiratory depression, which can lead to a decreased respiratory rate. This occurs because opioids suppress the activity of the brainstem respiratory centers, leading to decreased drive to breathe and ultimately slowing down the respiratory rate.
Therefore, in this scenario, the client's low respiratory rate of 8/min is likely due to the central nervous system depression caused by oxycodone.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
A: Oxycodone blocking the sodium channel suspending nerve conduction is not the mechanism behind the respiratory depression seen with opioids.
B: Oxycodone promoting vasodilation of cranial arteries is not related to the respiratory depression caused by opioids.
D: Oxycodone inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis is not the mechanism responsible for the respiratory
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate IV bolus for preeclampsia. The client's respiratory rate is 6/min and they have absent deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium gluconate. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing magnesium toxicity, characterized by respiratory depression and absent deep tendon reflexes. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular system, restoring neuromuscular excitability and potentially preventing cardiac arrest. Methylergonovine (
A) is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium toxicity. Naloxone (
C) is used to reverse opioid overdose, not magnesium toxicity. Dexamethasone (
D) is a corticosteroid used for anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects, not for magnesium toxicity.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prochlorperazine. This medication is an antiemetic that helps in controlling severe vomiting. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, reducing nausea and vomiting. Propafenone (
A) is an antiarrhythmic drug, not indicated for vomiting. Simvastatin (
B) is a statin used for lowering cholesterol. Metformin (
D) is an antidiabetic medication. These choices are incorrect for treating severe vomiting as they do not have antiemetic properties.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client in the post-anesthesia unit who is experiencing malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dantrolene. Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Dantrolene is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia as it works to inhibit calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, preventing muscle contraction and reducing body temperature. Verapamil (
A) is a calcium channel blocker and not indicated for malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (
B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for malignant hyperthermia. Cefazolin (
C) is an antibiotic used for infection, not for malignant hyperthermia.
Therefore, the correct choice is Dantrolene (
D) for treating malignant hyperthermia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased ascites. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is commonly used in cirrhotic patients to decrease fluid retention and ascites. As the medication helps to increase urine output and reduce fluid accumulation in the abdomen, a decrease in ascites would indicate that the client is responding positively to the treatment. Increased energy (choice
A) and increased appetite (choice
D) are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating cirrhotic ascites. Decreased jaundice (choice
B) may improve with liver function but is not a specific response to spironolactone.