ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypertension and takes hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and indicates hypokalemia, a common side effect of hydrochlorothiazide (a thiazide diuretic) that can lead to arrhythmias, requiring immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within the target range for treated hypertension (<140/90 mm Hg) and does not require reporting.
Choice C is wrong because a sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and is not concerning.
Choice D is wrong because a weight loss of 1 kg in 1 week is not significant and may reflect the diuretic effect of hydrochlorothiazide; significant weight changes (>2 kg in a week) would be more concerning.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a history of stroke. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Unilateral arm weakness is typical post-stroke due to hemispheric brain damage. Bilateral weakness, fever, or abdominal pain are not specific.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full-thickness tissue loss with visible muscle is characteristic of a stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer, indicating severe tissue damage common in advanced pressure ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because erythema and intact skin describe a stage 1 pressure ulcer, not a fully developed one.
Choice C is incorrect because blanchable redness over a bony prominence indicates tissue at risk but not yet a pressure ulcer.
Choice D is incorrect because eschar may be present in unstageable pressure ulcers, but full-thickness loss with visible muscle is a more specific finding for stage 3 or 4.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is setting up a sterile field to perform wound irrigation for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when pouring the sterile solution?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing sterile gauze over areas of spilled solution within the sterile field is incorrect. If solution is spilled within the sterile field, the entire field should be considered contaminated and a new sterile field should be set up. Holding the irrigation solution bottle with the label facing away from the palm of the hand is incorrect. The label should face the palm of the hand to avoid contamination of the sterile field. Removing the cap and placing it sterile-side up on a clean surface is correct. This ensures that the sterile side of the cap remains sterile and can be used to recap the bottle after pouring the solution. Holding the bottle in the center of the sterile field when pouring the solution is incorrect. The bottle should be held over the edge of the sterile field to avoid contamination of the field if solution spills.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crepitus (grating or crunching sound) with joint movement is a common finding in osteoarthritis due to cartilage degeneration and bone-on-bone contact.
Choice B is incorrect because osteoarthritis typically causes asymmetrical joint swelling, unlike rheumatoid arthritis, which is symmetrical.
Choice C is incorrect because morning stiffness in osteoarthritis is brief (less than 30 minutes), unlike rheumatoid arthritis, where it lasts longer (e.g., 2 hours).
Choice D is incorrect because fever is not a feature of osteoarthritis unless there is an infection or another condition.