ATI Comprehensive 2023 With NGN 180 Questions And Answers | Nurselytic

Questions 160

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ATI Comprehensive 2023 With NGN 180 Questions And Answers Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who has historic personality disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: self-centered behavior. Individuals with historic personality disorder often display self-centered behavior as they prioritize their own needs and desires above others. This is due to their excessive need for admiration and attention. The other options are incorrect because: A: Suspicious of others is more characteristic of paranoid personality disorder. B: Callousness is more indicative of antisocial personality disorder. D: Violates others' rights is a feature of antisocial personality disorder as well.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse in emergency department is caring for a three-year old child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is A: Prepare to assist with intubation. Epiglottitis is a medical emergency where the airway can become severely compromised due to swelling of the epiglottis. Intubation may be necessary to secure the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and potential death. Obtaining a throat culture (
B) may delay essential treatment. Suctioning the oropharynx (
C) can stimulate the epiglottis and worsen the obstruction. A cool mist tent (
D) does not address the immediate need for securing the airway.

Extract:

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant. Nurses'
Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Vital Signs Day
1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98,4° F) Heart
rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min BP
162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Diagnostic Results Day 1,
1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear) Color
yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03) Leukocyte esterase
negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative) Ketones
negative (negative) Crystals negative
(negative) Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative) WBC 5 (0
t0 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2) RBC
casts none (none)


Question 3 of 5

The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.

Correct Answer: A,C,F,G

Rationale: The correct answers (A, C, F, G) indicate potential prenatal complications. Urine protein (
A) suggests preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure (
C) and proteinuria. Headaches (F) can also be a sign of preeclampsia. Gravida/parity (G) provides important obstetric history, identifying high-risk pregnancies. Fetal activity (
B) and respiratory rate (E) are not specific to prenatal complications. Urine ketones (
D) may indicate dehydration but not necessarily a prenatal complication.

Extract:

The nurse is continuing to care for the client Nurses
Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Day 1, 0930:
Client reports a constant and throbbing headache and rates it as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. Denies
visual disturbances. +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities. Patellar reflex 4+ without
the presence of clonus. Client reports occasional nighttime leg cramps. Reports three fetal
movements within the last 30 min, External fetal monitor applied with a baseline FHR 140/min
with occasional accelerations and moderate variability. No uterine contractions noted.


Question 4 of 5

The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings. For each assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome. Each finding may support more than one disease process.

Assessment Findings Preeclampsia HELLP syndrome
Hemoglobin
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Blood pressure
Platelet count

Correct Answer: C,D

Rationale: Sure, here is the step-by-step rationale for why options C and D (Platelet count) are correct:

1. Blood pressure: In preeclampsia, high blood pressure is a key characteristic. Elevated blood pressure is a common finding in patients with preeclampsia, making option C consistent with preeclampsia.

2. Platelet count: HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count.
Therefore, a low platelet count is a hallmark feature of HELLP syndrome, aligning with option D.

Summary:
- Hemoglobin (Option
A): Hemoglobin levels are not specific to either preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome.
Therefore, this option is not selected.
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (Option
B): Elevated ALT levels are more specific to HELLP syndrome due to liver involvement. However, ALT

Extract:

The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Diagnostic Results Day 1,
1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear) Color
yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4,6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03) Leukocyte esterase
negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative) Ketones
negative (negative) Crystals negative
(negative) Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative) WBC 5 (0
to 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2) RBC
casts none (none)
Day 1, 1030:
CBC:
Nurses' Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Day 1, 0930:
Client reports a constant and throbbing headache and rates it as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. Denies
visual disturbances. +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, Patellar reflex 4+ without
the presence of clonus. Client reports occasional nighttime leg cramps. Reports three fetal
movements within the last 30 min. External fetal monitor applied with a baseline FHR 140/min
with occasional accelerations and moderate variability. No uterine contractions noted


Question 5 of 5

The client is at greatest risk for developing -----and-------

Correct Answer: A,E

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Placental abruption) and E (Seizures) because they are common complications during pregnancy. Placental abruption poses a risk of severe bleeding and fetal distress, leading to adverse outcomes. Seizures, specifically eclampsia, can occur due to uncontrolled hypertension in pregnancy, putting both the mother and baby at risk. Hypoglycemia (
B), heart failure (
C), and cervical insufficiency (
D) are potential complications but are not the greatest risks compared to placental abruption and seizures in this context.

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