ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated hematocrit level. In fluid volume deficit, there is a decrease in blood volume, leading to a concentration of red blood cells, resulting in an elevated hematocrit level. Weight gain (
A) is indicative of fluid retention, not deficit. Distended neck veins (
C) are a sign of fluid overload, not deficit. Shortness of breath (
D) is a symptom of heart failure but not specific to fluid volume status.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam for moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess for an adverse reaction to the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's oxygen saturation. When administering diazepam for conscious sedation, a potential adverse reaction is respiratory depression, which can lead to decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows the nurse to promptly identify any respiratory compromise. Checking urinary output (
B) is not directly related to assessing for adverse reactions to diazepam. Monitoring for seizure activity (
C) is important when administering medications that lower seizure threshold, but it is not a common adverse reaction of diazepam. Auscultating bowel sounds (
D) is unrelated to assessing for adverse reactions to diazepam.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has started taking theophylline. Which of the following client findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased wheezing. Theophylline is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions like asthma by relaxing the muscles in the airways, reducing wheezing. A decrease in wheezing indicates improved airway patency, making it an effective response to the medication. Increased level of consciousness (
A) and increased blood pressure (
C) are not directly related to theophylline's mechanism of action. Decreased urine output (
D) is not a typical indicator of theophylline effectiveness.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is teaching a group of clients about proper disposal of unused pain medications at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mix unused medications in coffee grounds before disposing of them. Mixing medications in coffee grounds helps to make them unattractive to children, pets, and individuals who may intentionally seek them out. It also helps to mask the medication's smell to deter others from retrieving them. This method is recommended by the FDA and EPA for safe medication disposal.
Choice A is incorrect because throwing medications in a dumpster can lead to misuse by others.
Choice B is incorrect as it does not ensure the medication is properly disposed of.
Choice C is incorrect as crushing opioids can still be dangerous if retrieved by others.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: WBC count. Filgrastim is a medication that stimulates the production of white blood cells (WBCs).
Therefore, monitoring the WBC count is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. An increase in WBC count indicates that the filgrastim is working to boost the immune system.
Incorrect
Choices:
A: INR - INR measures blood clotting time and is not directly related to the effectiveness of filgrastim.
C: BUN - BUN assesses kidney function, which is not affected by filgrastim.
D: Potassium level - Potassium is not typically affected by filgrastim therapy.