ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 II Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for cefaclor. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pruritus. Pruritus is a common symptom of an allergic reaction, typically presenting as itching of the skin. Allergic reactions to medications like cefaclor can manifest in various ways, but pruritus is a classic sign. Hematuria (
A) is blood in urine, not typically associated with allergic reactions. Slurred speech (
B) and tremor (
C) are more indicative of neurological issues, not allergies.
Therefore, pruritus is the most relevant finding in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a sulfonamide allergy. Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as contraindicated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glyburide. Sulfonamide antibiotics and sulfonylurea medications like glyburide share a similar chemical structure, increasing the risk of cross-reactivity in individuals with sulfonamide allergies. Famotidine (
A) is an H2 blocker, not contraindicated in sulfonamide allergies. Aspirin (
B) is not contraindicated unless the individual has a specific aspirin allergy. Metronidazole (
C) is an antibiotic in a different class and not contraindicated in sulfonamide allergies. Thus, the nurse should identify glyburide as contraindicated due to the potential cross-reactivity in a client with a sulfonamide allergy.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has started taking theophylline. Which of the following client findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased wheezing. Theophylline is a medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions like asthma by dilating the airways. A decrease in wheezing indicates improved air flow and reduced constriction of the air passages, showing the medication's effectiveness. Increased blood pressure (choice
B) is not expected as a response to theophylline.
Choice A, decreased urine output, is not a typical indicator of the medication's effectiveness. Increased level of consciousness (choice
C) is not directly related to theophylline's action on airway constriction.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT. The nurse should review the PT (Prothrombin Time) before administering warfarin because warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting clotting factors. PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade, which are affected by warfarin. Elevated PT indicates a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The other choices are incorrect because:
A) PTT assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, not directly affected by warfarin.
C)
Total iron-binding capacity is unrelated to warfarin therapy.
D) WBC (White Blood Cell count) assesses immune function, not relevant for warfarin administration.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to titrate a continuous nitroprusside infusion for a client. The nurse should plan to titrate the infusion according to which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. When titrating nitroprusside, a vasodilator used to lower blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is crucial. The goal is to maintain a specific target blood pressure range to prevent hypotension or hypertension. Adjusting the infusion rate based on blood pressure ensures the client's hemodynamic stability. Monitoring stroke volume, cardiac output, or urine output is not specific to the effects of nitroprusside. Blood pressure directly reflects the drug's vasodilatory effect, making it the most appropriate parameter to guide titration.