ATI RN
ATI Nproo 2100 Exam Unit 3 Fundamentals Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected anaphylactic reaction following a CT scan with contrast media. For which of the following client findings should the nurse intervene first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, which can rapidly progress to airway compromise and respiratory distress in an anaphylactic reaction.
Therefore, the nurse should intervene first to ensure the client's airway is patent. Hypotension (
B) is important but can be addressed after ensuring the airway is clear. Urticaria (
C) and vomiting (
D) are common signs of anaphylaxis but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway compromise.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who receives furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client due to this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Cortisol (
A) is not directly affected by furosemide. Bicarbonate (
B) levels may be impacted by furosemide but are not a primary concern. Albumin (
C) levels are not specifically affected by furosemide in the context of heart failure treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who was sexually assaulted. An assessment of the client indicates that they might have been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following questions is most important to ask the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Rationale: Asking who the individual was who assaulted the client is the most important question because knowing the perpetrator's HIV status can help determine the client's risk of exposure. This information is crucial for immediate medical interventions such as post-exposure prophylaxis. Other options like the location of the assault, permission to call the police, and the timing of the assault are important but not as critical in addressing the immediate health concerns related to potential HIV exposure.
Question 4 of 5
A 65-year-old female presents with confusion, headache, and muscle weakness. Her sodium level is 120 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate based on her condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer hypertonic saline and restrict water intake. In this case, the patient is presenting with hyponatremia (sodium level of 120 mEq/L) which can lead to neurological symptoms like confusion, headache, and muscle weakness. Administering hypertonic saline will help raise the sodium levels in the blood gradually. Restricting water intake is necessary to prevent further dilution of sodium. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the underlying issue of low sodium levels. Starting fluid restriction and administering a loop diuretic or isotonic saline without addressing the low sodium levels can worsen the condition. Increasing oral sodium intake and administering an antiemetic do not directly address the low sodium levels and may not be effective in treating hyponatremia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is educating a client who has HIV about the infection process. Which of the following features of the virus should the nurse explain can result in opportunistic infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ability to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes. HIV targets CD4 lymphocytes, which are essential for the immune system. By destroying these cells, the virus weakens the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Options A, B, and C are related to the replication process of HIV but do not directly contribute to opportunistic infections. Option A refers to reverse transcription, option B mentions reverse transcriptase enzyme, and option C describes the genetic material of the virus. None of these features directly result in opportunistic infections.