ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Assessment Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) to a community mental health facility. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect when completing the admission assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reluctance to discuss the event that precipitated the distress. This is expected in clients with PTSD due to the distressing nature of the precipitating event. They often avoid talking about it as it can trigger intense emotions and anxiety. This avoidance is part of the avoidance symptoms of PTSD.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Decreased startle response to loud noises is not typically seen in clients with PTSD; they often have an exaggerated startle response due to hypervigilance.
B: Reports uninterrupted sleep of 10 to 12 hours each night is not consistent with PTSD, as sleep disturbances like nightmares and insomnia are common in PTSD.
D: Reports feelings of acute distress that began 1 to 2 weeks ago is not indicative of PTSD, as the diagnosis requires symptoms to persist for more than one month.
Question 2 of 5
A mental health nurse is providing preventive care for a group of clients in the community. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates a secondary prevention strategy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because screening college students for depressive disorder falls under secondary prevention. This is because the nurse is identifying and intervening early with individuals who are at risk of developing a mental health condition but do not yet have a diagnosable disorder. By screening for depressive symptoms, the nurse can catch the condition in its early stages, provide appropriate interventions, and prevent the progression of the disorder.
Choices A, C, and D do not demonstrate a secondary prevention strategy.
Choice A involves providing care for clients who already have schizophrenia and tardive dyskinesia, which is more focused on tertiary prevention.
Choice C involves training volunteers in communication skills, which is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting a supportive environment.
Choice D involves teaching coping skills to individuals with a family history of Alzheimer's disease, which is more focused on primary prevention through risk reduction strategies.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) after being physically assaulted. The client is unable to recall any details of the event. Which of the following defense mechanisms should the nurse recognize that the client is displaying?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dissociation. This defense mechanism involves detaching oneself from reality to cope with overwhelming stress. In this case, the client's inability to recall details of the traumatic event suggests dissociation as a way to protect themselves from the emotional pain associated with the assault.
Incorrect choices:
B: Rationalization - Involves justifying or making excuses for behaviors to reduce anxiety. This is not relevant to the client's memory loss.
C: Undoing - Involves attempting to reverse or negate a previous action. This is not applicable to the client's situation.
D: Reaction formation - Involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. This is not evident in the client's inability to recall the event.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has autism spectrum disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: The correct answers are A, C, and D. A child with autism spectrum disorder (AS
D) often shows a lack of eye contact as they may struggle with social interactions. Constant spinning of a toy is a common repetitive behavior seen in children with ASD. Withdrawal from physical contact may occur due to sensory sensitivities.
Choices B and E are not specific to ASD and can be seen in typically developing children.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of suicide attempts. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for another suicide attempt?
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: The correct answer is B and C. Depression and delusions place the client at risk for another suicide attempt. Depression is a common risk factor for suicide as it can lead to feelings of hopelessness and despair. Delusions, especially those related to self-harm or negative beliefs about oneself, can also increase the risk of suicide. Hallucinations (
A) may contribute to the risk but are not directly associated. Catatonia (
D) can lead to severe immobility but is not necessarily linked to suicide risk. Tinnitus (E) is a symptom of ringing in the ears and is not typically a direct risk factor for suicide.