ATI RN
RN ATI Maternal Newborn 2023 with NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client to the labor and delivery unit when the client states, 'My water just broke.' Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. This is the priority intervention because it assesses the well-being of the fetus immediately after the client's water breaking. Monitoring the fetal heart rate can provide crucial information on the baby's status and help identify any signs of distress. Performing Nitrazine testing (
A) or checking cervical dilation (
C) can be done after ensuring fetal well-being. Assessing the fluid (
B) can confirm if the amniotic sac has indeed ruptured but does not provide immediate information on fetal status.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is performing a routine assessment on a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: FHR 152/min. At 18 weeks gestation, the fetal heart rate (FHR) should be around 140-160 bpm, making a rate of 152/min within the expected range. This indicates normal fetal cardiac activity and development.
A: Deep tendon reflexes are not typically assessed during routine prenatal visits and are not related to gestational age.
B: Fundal height at 18 weeks should be around the level of the umbilicus, which is closer to 20 cm, not 14 cm.
C: Blood pressure of 142/94 mm Hg is elevated and indicates hypertension, which is not expected at 18 weeks gestation.
E, F, G: No other options provided.
Extract:
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results in the adolescent's medical record.
Exhibit 1
Vital Signs
1300: Blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg, Heart rate 100/min ,Respiratory rate 20/min ,Temperature 38.3° C
(101° F)
Exhibit 2:
Provider Prescriptions 1300: Standing prescriptions for clients who present with abdominal pain: Obtain
laboratory tests: Urinalysis Cervical culture C-reactive protein Beta hCG
Exhibit 3:
Nurses' Notes 1300: Admitted adolescent reporting "cramping in my stomach." Reports pain as a 4 on 0
to 10 pain scale and describes pain as constant and dull. Reports nausea and vomiting over past 24
hours. Reports painful urination and pain during sexual intercourse with minimal vaginal itching-
Tenderness with palpation to lower abdomen, guarding abdomen observed. Greenish vaginal discharge
observed. Reports last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago as normal period lasted 4 days. “
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following conditions is the client most likely developing?
| Pelvic inflammatory. |
| Ectopic pregnancy. |
| Pyclonephritis. |
| C-reactive protein. |
| Beta hCG. |
| Urinalysis. |
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: [1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0]
The correct answer is A: Pelvic inflammatory. Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of the female reproductive organs, often caused by sexually transmitted infections. It presents with symptoms like pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, and fever. Ectopic pregnancy (
B) is the implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus and presents with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Pyelonephritis (
C) is a kidney infection, typically causing fever and flank pain. C-reactive protein (
D) is a marker for inflammation and infection, not a specific condition. Beta hCG (E) is a hormone produced in pregnancy. Urinalysis (F) is a test to analyze urine composition, not a condition.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a client who requests an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and D. Cholecystitis is a contraindication due to the risk of gallbladder disease. Hypertension is a contraindication because estrogen in oral contraceptives can exacerbate hypertension. Migraine headaches are a contraindication due to the increased risk of stroke. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are not contraindications for oral contraceptives.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have calcium gluconate readily available. Magnesium sulfate IV can cause toxicity leading to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the muscles. Having it readily available ensures prompt treatment in case of toxicity.
Restricting fluid intake (
A) is not necessary for preeclampsia and can lead to dehydration. Assessing deep tendon reflexes (
C) every 6 hours is important but not as crucial as having the antidote readily available. Monitoring intake and output (
D) every 4 hours is important for overall assessment but does not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity.