ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Endocrine and Hematology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with the care of a client who has a deep laceration on her left lower forearm and is bleeding heavily from the wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to apply pressure directly to the wound first. This is crucial to control the bleeding and prevent further blood loss. Applying pressure helps to promote clotting and reduce the risk of hypovolemic shock. It is the immediate and most effective intervention to manage the situation.
Choice A (Apply a tourniquet just above the wound) is incorrect because tourniquets should be used as a last resort due to the risk of tissue damage and potential complications.
Choice B (Place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position) is incorrect as this position is not recommended for patients with bleeding as it can increase intracranial pressure and worsen the situation.
Choice D (Settle the client in a reclining position) is incorrect because the priority is to control the bleeding first before adjusting the client's position.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer levothyroxine 100mcg po to a client who has hypothyroidism. Available levothyroxine is 50 mcg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round off to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
To determine the number of tablets to administer, divide the prescribed dose by the available dose per tablet. In this case, 100mcg ÷ 50mcg = 2 tablets. The correct answer is B because administering 2 tablets of 50mcg each will provide the total prescribed dose of 100mcg.
Choice A is incorrect as it would only provide 50mcg, while choices C and D would exceed the prescribed dose.
Choices E, F, and G are not applicable.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the effects of warfarin (coumadin)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using an electric razor for shaving indicates the client understands the risk of bleeding while on warfarin (coumadin) due to its anticoagulant effects. Shaving with a manual razor can increase the risk of cuts and bleeding.
Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is a blood thinner and should not be taken with warfarin as it can increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin.
Choice D is incorrect because alcohol can also interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 250 mg PO. Available is amoxicillin oral suspension 125 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
To determine the correct amount of oral suspension to administer, we first need to calculate the total mL needed for 250 mg of amoxicillin. Given that the concentration is 125 mg/5 mL, we can set up a proportion: 125 mg is to 5 mL as 250 mg is to x mL. Cross multiply to find x: 125x = 250*5. Solving for x, we get x = 250*5/125 = 10 mL.
Therefore, the nurse should administer 10 mL of amoxicillin oral suspension.
Choice A (2 mL) is incorrect because it is only half of the calculated amount.
Choice B (5 mL) is incorrect because it does not account for the higher dosage required.
Choice C (8 mL) is incorrect as it is too low based on the calculation.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer Lactated Ringer's solution IV to infuse at 120 mL/hr for a client who has a respiratory disorder. The drop factor in the manual IV tubing is 60 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the flow rate to deliver how many gtts/min?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 120 gtt/min.
To calculate the infusion rate in gtts/min, first convert the prescribed rate of 120 mL/hr to gtts/hr by multiplying it by the drop factor of 60 gtt/mL.
120 mL/hr * 60 gtt/mL = 7200 gtts/hr
Next, convert gtts/hr to gtts/min by dividing by 60 (since there are 60 minutes in an hour):
7200 gtts/hr / 60 min = 120 gtts/min
Therefore, the nurse should set the flow rate to deliver 120 gtts/min.
Choice A is incorrect as it is lower than the correct answer.
Choice B is incorrect as it is also lower than the correct answer.
Choice D is incorrect as it is higher than the correct answer.