ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2023/24 1st Attempt & Retake Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders. At 12 weeks of gestation, amniocentesis is typically not done to determine the sex of the fetus but rather to identify genetic abnormalities or congenital disorders. Providing this information allows the client to make informed decisions about their pregnancy and potential interventions.
A: You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age - This statement is incorrect as age alone is not the sole criteria for recommending amniocentesis.
C: Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby - Chorionic villus sampling is also not typically done to determine the sex of the fetus.
D: We can schedule the procedure for later today if you’d like - This is incorrect as scheduling an amniocentesis without a medical indication is not appropriate.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a newborn who was born at 39 weeks of gestation and is 36 hr old.
Physical Examination:
• Fontanels soft and flat
• Head molded with caput succedaneum
• Eyes symmetric, no discharge, sclera yellow
• Mucous membranes dry
• Abdomen soft and rounded, bowel sounds present x 4 quadrants
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,B,C,G
Rationale: The correct answers to report to the provider are A, B, C, and G. A Coombs test result should be reported as it indicates potential hemolytic anemia. Mucous membrane assessment is crucial for hydration status and oxygenation. Intake and output levels are key indicators of kidney function and hydration status. Sclera color can indicate liver function or anemia.
Choices D, E, and F are important assessments but do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are outside of normal ranges and affecting the patient's condition.
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Rationale:
- Dairy products can exacerbate symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum due to their high-fat content.
- Eliminating dairy can help reduce nausea and vomiting.
- It shows the client understands the importance of modifying their diet for symptom management.
Incorrect Options:
- A: Choosing taste over balanced meals may not address the client's nutritional needs.
- B: Avoiding bedtime snacks may not directly impact hyperemesis gravidarum symptoms.
- C: Hot tea may not necessarily be beneficial for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
Summary: Eliminating dairy is crucial in managing hyperemesis gravidarum by reducing symptoms, unlike the other options that may not directly address the condition.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 48 hr old.
Exhibit 1
Vital Signs
Day 2, 0900:
Heart rate 174/min
Respiratory rate 88/min
Temperature 36.1° C (97.0° F)
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Exhibit 2
Diagnostic Results
Day 1, 0800: Newborn results
Blood type: A+
Urine toxicology screen: positive marijuana
Day 2, 0800: Newborn results
Total bilirubin 10 mg/dL (1.0 to 12.0 mg/dL)
Day 2, 0915:
Blood glucose: 38 mg/dL (expected value greater than 40 to 45 gm/dL)
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is
most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2
parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
Question 4 of 5
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing. 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
Action to Take
Potential Condition
Parameter to Monitor
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Action to Take: A, B; Potential Condition: B; Parameter to Monitor: C, E. The correct answer is to place newborn skin to skin on birthing parent's chest (
A) to promote bonding and regulate temperature, and encourage breastfeeding (
B) for nutrition and immune benefits. The potential condition the client is most likely experiencing is Cold stress (
B), indicated by the need for phototherapy. The nurse should monitor Temperature (
C) for signs of hypothermia and Bilirubin level (E) to assess jaundice severity. These interventions and parameters address the client's most likely condition and provide comprehensive care.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has peripartum cardiomyopathy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess blood pressure twice daily. In a client with peripartum cardiomyopathy, monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect worsening heart function and potential complications. Assessing blood pressure twice daily allows for early detection of hypertension or hypotension, which can indicate cardiac decompensation. Misoprostol (
Choice
A) is not indicated in this scenario. Restricting fluid intake (
Choice
C) can lead to dehydration and worsen the client's condition. Administering an IV bolus of lactated Ringer's (
Choice
D) may not be appropriate without assessing the client's fluid status first.