ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical 2 Final 2024 Assessment Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a rotator cuff injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder is a classic sign of a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is responsible for stabilizing the shoulder joint and aiding in various movements, including abduction. When there is a tear or significant weakness in the rotator cuff muscles, especially the supraspinatus muscle, the patient may be unable to lift the arm away from the body or may experience pain while doing so. A negative drop arm test would actually indicate that there is no rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by asking the patient to fully abduct the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the patient can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the patient cannot control the descent of the arm, would suggest a rotator cuff tear. While an alteration in the contour of the joint may indicate some form of shoulder pathology, it is not specific to a rotator cuff injury. Changes in the contour could be due to various conditions, including dislocation, arthritis, or other musculoskeletal disorders. A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, not rotator cuff injuries. It is performed by tapping over the course of a nerve to elicit a tingling sensation or pain in the distribution of the nerve. This sign is commonly associated with conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple long bone fractures caused by a motor-vehicle crash that happened 24 hours ago. The client tells the nurse he is short of breath and is experiencing chest pain. The nurse should assess the client further for which of the following potential complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fat embolism syndrome is likely, as long bone fractures can release fat globules into the bloodstream, causing respiratory distress and chest pain. VTE, hypovolemic shock, and compartment syndrome present differently.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: It is common for clients to feel a constant urge to void due to bladder irritation from the catheter and continuous bladder irrigation. Reminding the client that this is normal can alleviate anxiety.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of exposure to TB and symptoms of night sweats and hemoptysis. Which of the following tests should the nurse realize is the most reliable to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus is the gold standard for confirming active pulmonary TB, providing definitive diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 5 hours postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse notes that the client's indwelling urinary catheter has not drained in the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first action should be to check the tubing for kinks, as this is a common and easily correctable cause of obstruction in catheter drainage. Adjusting the irrigant rate or irrigating the catheter may be subsequent steps, and notifying the provider is appropriate only if initial troubleshooting fails.