ATI RN
ATI Capstone Week 11 Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is completing a skin assessment of a client who is in the second trimester. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: The correct answer is A, B, D. During the second trimester, common skin changes include chloasma, which presents as hyperpigmented patches on the face (
A); linea nigra, a dark line running from the umbilicus to the pubis (
B); and striae gravidarum, also known as stretch marks (
D). Chloasma and linea nigra are due to hormonal changes, while striae gravidarum result from stretching of the skin due to weight gain. Psoriasis (
C) and eczema (E) are not typically associated with pregnancy-related skin changes during the second trimester.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing an older adult client who reports a sudden onset of urinary incontinence. The nurse should recognize which of the following conditions is most likely to cause incontinence in the older adult client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cystitis. Cystitis is inflammation of the bladder, which can lead to sudden onset urinary incontinence in older adults. The inflammation can irritate the bladder, causing urgency and frequency of urination, leading to incontinence. Nephrosclerosis (
B) is a condition affecting the kidneys, not directly related to urinary incontinence. Diverticulitis (
C) is inflammation of the diverticula in the colon, not typically associated with urinary incontinence. Uremia (
D) is a condition where there are high levels of urea in the blood due to kidney dysfunction, which can cause various symptoms but not directly related to urinary incontinence.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because at 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines. This indicates that the baby's head has descended to the level of the maternal ischial spines, which is a significant position in the birthing process. This is a key landmark for monitoring progress during labor.
Option A is incorrect because passing through the pelvic outlet is not the same as being at 0 station. Option B is incorrect because the palpability of the posterior fontanel is unrelated to station. Option D is incorrect because the fetal head position is not specified in the station measurement.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy and asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. Quickening, the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between weeks 16-20 of gestation, which aligns with the fourth and fifth months. This timing is due to the development of the fetus's nervous system and muscle strength, allowing for noticeable movements. The other choices are incorrect because quickening does not occur by the end of the first trimester (
A), during the last trimester (
C), or solely when the uterus rises out of the pelvis (
D), as its timing is more closely related to fetal development.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: The correct assessment findings for Cushing's syndrome include purple striae due to skin thinning and poor wound healing from impaired immune response. Moon face and buffalo hump are typical physical features resulting from fat redistribution. Bronze pigmentation is seen in Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome.