ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is teaching information about cervical polyps with a client who has a new diagnosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postcoital bleeding may occur. This information is essential to include in teaching about cervical polyps because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause bleeding, especially after intercourse. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this symptom to monitor for any abnormal bleeding and seek medical attention if necessary.
Option B is incorrect because a pelvic ultrasound is not always required for diagnosing cervical polyps; they can often be diagnosed through a pelvic exam. Option C is incorrect because not all cervical polyps resolve on their own and may require treatment if symptomatic. Option D is incorrect because while cervical polyps are usually benign, they can be associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer in some cases.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning a presentation about HIV for a church-based group. Which of the following information about HIV transmission should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because HIV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. This includes activities like unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and mother-to-child transmission during childbirth or breastfeeding. Casual contact (choice
B) is not a common mode of transmission, and HIV is not transmitted through airborne droplets (choice
C). While sexual contact is a significant mode of transmission, HIV can also be transmitted through other means involving infected body fluids. Thus, option D is incorrect as it is too limiting.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing a client for a radiation treatment who is postoperative following a mastectomy. The nurse should inform the client to expect which of the following adverse effects from the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fatigue. Radiation treatment can cause fatigue as it affects healthy cells in addition to cancer cells, leading to increased tiredness. Hair loss (
A) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, while nausea and vomiting (
B) are typical side effects of chemotherapy or certain medications. Skin irritation (
D) is a common side effect of radiation treatment, but fatigue is the primary adverse effect in this scenario due to its impact on overall energy levels.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has had a spinal cord injury at the level of the T2-T3 vertebrae. When planning care, the nurse should anticipate which of the following types of disability?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Paraplegia. Damage at the T2-T3 vertebrae level affects the lower part of the body, resulting in paralysis of the legs and potentially part of the trunk (paraplegia). This injury does not affect the arms or hands, ruling out tetraplegia (
B) and quadriplegia (
C). Hemiplegia (
D) refers to paralysis on one side of the body only, which is not the case here. Other choices are not applicable.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who recently had surgery for insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. MRI of the chest should be clarified because the magnetic field can interfere with the function of the pacemaker, potentially causing harm to the patient. An electrocardiogram, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram are safe imaging tests that do not interfere with the pacemaker.
Therefore, D is the correct answer that should be clarified to ensure patient safety.