ATI RN
RN ATI Comprehensive Assessment Exam Retake 2023 V2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is planning care for a child who has ADHD and is taking atomoxetine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atomoxetine, used for ADHD, can cause liver injury. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any abnormalities early. B, kidney function tests, are not directly affected by atomoxetine. C, hemoglobin and hematocrit, are not typically monitored for this medication. D, serum sodium and potassium, are not specific to atomoxetine. E, F, G are not provided.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching about home safety to the adult child of an older adult client who is postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensure that area rugs have rubber backs. This instruction is important because rubber-backed area rugs can prevent slipping and falling accidents, which is crucial for a postoperative hip replacement patient. It provides stability and reduces the risk of injuries.
Choice A is incorrect because wearing shoes at home can actually increase the risk of falls due to potential slipping hazards.
Choice B is incorrect as placing a throw rug over electrical cords can create a tripping hazard.
Choice C is incorrect as marking the edges of the doorway with tape does not address the main safety concern of preventing falls related to the rugs.
By selecting choice D, the nurse addresses the specific safety need of the postoperative hip replacement patient and promotes a safer home environment.
Extract:
Nurses: Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement. Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Day 1, 0930:
Client reports a constant and throbbing headache and rates it as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. Denies visual disturbances. +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities. Patellar reflex 4+ without the presence of clonus. Client reports occasional nighttime leg cramps. Reports three fetal movements within the last 30 min. External fetal monitor applied with a baseline FHR 140/min with occasional accelerations and moderate variability. No uterine contractions noted
Vital Signs
Day 1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98.4°F)
Heart rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min
BP 162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Day 1, 0930:
Temperature (oral) 37.1°C (98.8°F)
Heart rate 84/min
Respiratory rate 18/min
BP 166/110 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 99% on room air
Diagnostic Results
Day 1, 1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear)
Color yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03)
Leukocyte esterase negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative)
Ketones negative (negative)
Crystals negative (negative)
Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative)
WBC 5 (0 to 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2)
RBC casts none (none)
Day 1, 1030:
CBC:
Hemoglobin 18.0 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL)
Hematocrit 35% (37 to 47%)
Platelets 98,000/mm³ (150,000 to 400,000/mm³)
Question 3 of 5
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The client is at greatest risk for developing-----and-----
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: The correct answer is C (Heart failure) and E (Seizures). Heart failure and seizures are commonly associated with severe preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. In severe cases, preeclampsia can lead to heart failure due to the increased strain on the heart and seizures due to cerebral edema. Placental abruption (
A), hypoglycemia (
B), and cervical insufficiency (
D) are not directly related to the client's risk in this scenario. Placental abruption is associated with vaginal bleeding, hypoglycemia with low blood sugar levels, and cervical insufficiency with premature dilation of the cervix.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4 mg IV 15 min ago. The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone. Naloxone is a reversal agent for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. The client's respiratory rate of 10/min is a sign of opioid overdose and respiratory depression, which can be reversed by naloxone. Administering naloxone will help reverse the effects of hydromorphone and improve the client's respiratory function.
Acetylcysteine (choice
A) is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose. Protamine (choice
B) is used to reverse the effects of heparin. Flumazenil (choice
D) is a reversal agent for benzodiazepines, not opioids. The other choices are not relevant to the situation described.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is near the end of life and is on complete bed rest. The client states that he needs to have a bowel movement, and the nurse offers a bed pan. The client states, 'I've always used the bathroom.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tell me what concerns you have about using a bed pan." This response demonstrates empathy and encourages the client to express their feelings, fostering open communication. By understanding the client's concerns, the nurse can address them effectively, promoting a sense of control and dignity for the client.
Option B is incorrect as it disregards the client's request to not use the bed pan. Option C is incorrect as it assumes the client can be ambulated to the bathroom, which may not be feasible. Option D is incorrect as it is authoritarian and dismisses the client's autonomy. It is essential to prioritize the client's comfort and emotional well-being in end-of-life care.