ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse evaluates a client's PSA lab results. An increase in PSA indicates what condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prostatic cancer. PSA levels are commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels indicate an increased likelihood of prostate cancer. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (choice
A) is a non-cancerous condition that can also cause elevated PSA levels but is not indicative of cancer. Urinary tract infection (choice
C) and kidney stones (choice
D) do not directly affect PSA levels. The other choices (E, F, G) are not provided, but the key is to understand that an increase in PSA specifically points towards the possibility of prostatic cancer.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and a new prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White coating in the mouth. This adverse effect can indicate oral thrush, a fungal infection common with inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone. The nurse should instruct the client to report this to the provider promptly for appropriate treatment. Increased heart rate (
B) and insomnia (
C) are common side effects of the medication but not usually serious enough to report immediately. Shortness of breath (
D) is a symptom of poorly controlled asthma and should be addressed promptly but not considered an adverse effect of the medication in this context.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings for a client who developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum calcium level. In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat droplets enter the bloodstream and can affect various organs. One of the common complications is hypocalcemia due to the binding of calcium to the fatty acids, leading to decreased serum calcium levels. This can result in symptoms such as confusion, tetany, and seizures. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Increased potassium level is not typically associated with FES. C: Decreased white blood cell count is not a common finding in FES. D: Increased serum albumin level is not related to FES.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client before a packed RBC transfusion. What data is most important to obtain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Temperature. Before a packed RBC transfusion, it is crucial to assess the client's temperature as hyperthermia can indicate a possible transfusion reaction. Monitoring temperature helps in early detection and intervention. Blood pressure (
A) is important but not the most crucial in this context. Respiratory rate (
C) and oxygen saturation (
D) are relevant but may not indicate an immediate issue with the transfusion. Other choices are not provided.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and is taking aspirin 650 mg every 4 hours. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). ESR is a common test used to monitor inflammation levels in rheumatoid arthritis (R
A) patients. Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory medication, so monitoring ESR can help assess the effectiveness of the treatment. A decrease in ESR levels indicates a reduction in inflammation, suggesting that the aspirin is working. The other choices (A, C,
D) are not specific to monitoring the effectiveness of aspirin in RA. C-reactive protein and white blood cell count are general markers of inflammation and infection, not specific to RA. Hematocrit measures red blood cell levels, which are not directly related to the effectiveness of aspirin in treating RA.