ATI RN
ATI nurs 180 Pharmacology Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client newly prescribed niacin (Nicotinic Acid) presents to the healthcare setting with complaints of flushing following doses. Which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate being administered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: NSAIDs. Niacin causes flushing due to prostaglandin release. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, reducing flushing. A: Beta blockers do not directly address the mechanism of niacin-induced flushing. B: Calcium channel blockers do not affect prostaglandin release. D: Fibric Acid Derivatives do not target prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 2 of 5
A client is prescribed antibiotics while pending the results of their wound culture. The nurse understands this method of medication therapy is known as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Empiric therapy. In this scenario, antibiotics are prescribed based on the healthcare provider's best guess without knowing the specific causative organism. This is done to treat the infection promptly while awaiting culture results. Prophylactic therapy (
A) is preventive treatment, not based on an existing infection. Palliative therapy (
B) focuses on symptom relief rather than curing the infection. Maintenance therapy (
C) is used to manage chronic conditions, not for acute infections.
Therefore, the correct choice is empiric therapy in this case.
Question 3 of 5
A client diagnosed with strep throat requires antibiotics for treatment. With an allergy to penicillin, the nurse understands which medication should be avoided due to cross-sensitivity with penicillin medications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cephalosporins. Cephalosporins have a similar beta-lactam ring structure to penicillins, leading to potential cross-sensitivity in patients with penicillin allergy. Macrolides (
A), Sulfonamides (
B), and Tetracyclines (
D) are different classes of antibiotics and do not typically cross-react with penicillins.
Therefore, they are safe alternatives for patients allergic to penicillin.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When PO morphine has a high first-pass effect, it means that a significant portion of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation.
Therefore, administering the drug through a non-enteral route (such as intravenous) would bypass the liver metabolism, leading to higher bioavailability and increased effectiveness.
A: Incorrect. The drug will not be most effective when given orally due to the high first-pass effect.
C: Incorrect. The excretion rate is unrelated to the first-pass effect of the drug.
D: Incorrect. The liver, not the kidney, is responsible for the first-pass effect of morphine.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is lethargic, diaphoretic, and difficult to arouse. The client's blood sugar result was 40 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates which of the following to be administered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IVP dextrose 50%. A blood sugar level of 40 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia. Administering dextrose 50% intravenously is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly increase the client's blood sugar levels and reverse the symptoms of hypoglycemia. Glucose tablets (choice
A) may take longer to raise blood sugar levels. Epinephrine (choice
B) is used for severe allergic reactions, not hypoglycemia. Orange juice (choice
D) contains sugar but is not as rapidly effective as intravenous dextrose.