ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn III Questions
Extract:
A client at her first prenatal clinic visit
Question 1 of 5
A client comes to the prenatal clinic for her first visit. When determining the client's estimated due date, the nurse understands which method is the most accurate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ultrasound in the first trimester measures fetal size accurately for due date estimation, unlike Nagele's rule, gestation wheel, or calculators, which rely on less precise menstrual data or assumptions.
Extract:
A pregnant client receiving prenatal care
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing prenatal care to a pregnant client. At which time would the nurse expect to screen the client for group B streptococcus infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Screening for group B streptococcus (GBS) is done at 35-37 weeks (36 weeks is closest) to assess colonization status near delivery, guiding intrapartum antibiotic use to prevent neonatal infection. Earlier screening (16, 28, or 32 weeks) may not reflect status at birth, as GBS colonization can change.
Extract:
A client who may be pregnant
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who may be pregnant. The nurse reviews the client's history for presumptive signs. Which signs would the nurse most likely note? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Presumptive signs, subjective or non-definitive, include nausea (hormonal), abdominal enlargement (uterine growth), positive pregnancy test (hCG detection), and amenorrhea (missed periods). Braxton Hicks are probable signs, felt later.
Extract:
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum admitted after unsuccessful home care
Question 4 of 5
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is admitted to the facility after being cared for at home without success. What would the nurse expect to include in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe vomiting, risking dehydration and malnutrition.
Total parenteral nutrition delivers complete nutrients intravenously, addressing these risks when oral intake fails. Clear liquids or nothing by mouth worsen malnutrition, and diethylstilbestrol, a discontinued drug, is irrelevant.
Extract:
A client prescribed quetiapine 50 mg PO divided equally every 12 hours for 3 days
Question 5 of 5
A provider prescribes quetiapine 50 mg PO divided equally every 12 hours for 3 days. Available is quetiapine 25 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose on day 3?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily dose (50 mg) ÷ 2 (every 12 hours) = 25 mg per dose. At 25 mg/tablet, 25 mg ÷ 25 mg = 1 tablet per dose, consistent on day 3 as dosing doesn't change.