ATI RN
RN ATI Comprehensive Assessment Exam Retake 2023 V2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A charge nurse is monitoring a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A - "I will hang a new bag of TPN and IV tubing every 24 hours."
Rationale: Changing the TPN bag and tubing every 24 hours is crucial to prevent contamination and infection. TPN is a high-risk solution that can support bacterial growth. Changing the bag and tubing decreases the risk of infection and ensures the client receives fresh and uncontaminated TPN.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
B: Obtaining the client's weight every other day is important for adjusting the TPN formula but does not demonstrate an understanding of the procedure like changing the bag and tubing.
C: Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every 8 hours is important for assessing tolerance to TPN but does not directly relate to the procedural aspect of TPN administration.
D: Increasing the rate of TPN infusion to ensure the correct amount is given is not safe practice and can lead to complications. The rate should be prescribed by the healthcare provider and not arbitrarily increased.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: C (Fetal anemia)
Rationale: Fetal anemia can lead to decreased oxygen delivery to the fetus, causing fetal bradycardia. Anemia reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in the heart working harder to compensate for the decreased oxygen levels, leading to a lower fetal heart rate.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
A: Maternal hypoglycemia - Unlikely to cause fetal bradycardia directly.
B: Chorioamnionitis - Typically presents with maternal fever and tachycardia, not fetal bradycardia.
D: Maternal fever - Can cause fetal tachycardia, not bradycardia.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Self-centered behavior. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder typically exhibit attention-seeking, dramatic, and overly emotional behaviors. They often crave approval and validation from others, focusing on themselves and their own needs. This behavior aligns with the core characteristics of histrionic personality disorder.
Choice A (Suspicious of others) is incorrect as suspicion is not a defining trait of histrionic personality disorder.
Choice B (Callousness) is inconsistent as histrionic individuals tend to be overly emotional rather than callous.
Choice D (Violates other's rights) is not a common feature of histrionic personality disorder.
In summary, the nurse should expect self-centered behavior in a client with histrionic personality disorder, as they typically display attention-seeking and dramatic behaviors, seeking validation and approval from others.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a 3-year-old child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare to assist with intubation. Epiglottitis is a medical emergency where the swelling of the epiglottis can rapidly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress or failure. Intubation is crucial to secure the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation. Obtaining a throat culture (
B) may delay necessary intervention. Suctioning the oropharynx (
C) can trigger spasm and worsen the obstruction. Cool mist tent (
D) does not address the immediate need for securing the airway.
Extract:
Nurses' Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement. Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Vital Signs
Day 1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98.4°F)
Heart rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min
BP 162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Diagnostic Results
Day 1, 1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear)
Color yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03)
Leukocyte esterase negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative)
Ketones negative (negative)
Crystals negative (negative)
Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative)
WBC 5 (0 to 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2)
RBC casts none (none)
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.
Correct Answer: A, B, C, F
Rationale: The correct answer includes findings that are indicative of potential prenatal complications.
A: Urine protein can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition in pregnancy.
B: Fetal activity changes may suggest fetal distress or growth restriction.
C: Blood pressure changes can indicate hypertension or preeclampsia.
F: Headache can be a symptom of preeclampsia or other serious conditions.
Choices D, E, and G are not typically associated with prenatal complications. D: Urine ketones may indicate dehydration but not necessarily a prenatal complication. E: Respiratory rate is not directly related to prenatal complications. G: Gravida/parity information is important for obstetric history but not directly indicative of current prenatal complications.