ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Exam 3 Fall 2023 Questions
Extract:
A client who has scabies.
Question 1 of 5
A charge nurse is making a room assignment for a client who has scabies. In which of the following rooms should the nurse place the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A private room. Scabies is transmitted through close, prolonged skin-to-skin contact. Placing the client in a private room helps prevent the spread of scabies to other clients. Negative-pressure rooms are used for airborne infections like tuberculosis, not scabies. Positive-pressure rooms are typically used for immunocompromised clients. Placing the client with pediculosis capitis can lead to cross-contamination.
Therefore, the best choice is a private room to prevent the spread of scabies.
Extract:
A client who has Parkinson's disease and is starting to display bradykinesia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has Parkinson's disease and is starting to display bradykinesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give the patient extra time to perform activities. Bradykinesia is a hallmark symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slow movement. By giving the patient extra time, the nurse allows the client to perform activities at their own pace, reducing frustration and promoting independence.
Choice B is incorrect because teaching the client to walk more quickly goes against the nature of bradykinesia.
Choice C is irrelevant as a low-protein, low-calorie diet is not indicated for bradykinesia.
Choice D is not directly related to addressing bradykinesia and may not be the most effective intervention.
Extract:
A client with osteoporosis.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse advises a client with osteoporosis to have three servings of milk or dairy products daily. Which of the following levels of prevention is being used by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primary prevention. The nurse is focusing on preventing osteoporosis from developing in the first place by recommending a diet rich in calcium through milk and dairy products. This falls under primary prevention as it aims to address risk factors before the disease occurs.
A: Proactive prevention does not accurately describe the situation as it is not a recognized level of prevention.
B: Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications. The nurse's advice is more about preventing the condition itself rather than managing complications.
C: Tertiary prevention is about managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further deterioration. The nurse's advice is more about preventing osteoporosis rather than managing it once it has developed.
In summary, the nurse's recommendation of consuming milk or dairy products aligns with primary prevention by addressing risk factors to prevent the onset of osteoporosis.
Extract:
A client with myasthenia gravis has lost 6 kg of weight over the last 2 months.
Question 4 of 5
A client with myasthenia gravis has lost 6 kg of weight over the last 2 months. What should the nurse suggest to improve this client's nutritional status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A: Plan medication doses to occur before meals
Rationale:
1. Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder affecting muscle weakness, including swallowing muscles.
2. Taking medication before meals ensures optimal absorption and effectiveness.
3. Weight loss in myasthenia gravis can be due to difficulty swallowing, leading to reduced oral intake.
4. Planning medication doses before meals can help improve swallowing and intake.
5. This approach addresses the underlying cause of weight loss and supports nutritional status.
Summary:
B: Restricting fluids before and during meals may worsen swallowing difficulties.
C: Increasing fat and carbohydrates may not address the issue of difficulty swallowing.
D: Eating three large meals per day may be challenging for someone with swallowing difficulties in myasthenia gravis.
Extract:
A client who was brought in following a seizure. The nurse suspects the client may have meningococcal meningitis when assessment findings include nuchal rigidity and a petechial rash.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in the emergency room is assessing a client who was brought in following a seizure. The nurse suspects the client may have meningococcal meningitis when assessment findings include nuchal rigidity and a petechial rash. After implementing droplet precautions, which of the following actions should the nurse initiate next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the cranial nerves. Assessing the cranial nerves is crucial in evaluating neurological status in a client with suspected meningitis. Cranial nerve assessment can provide information about any potential neurological deficits or abnormalities that may indicate the severity of the condition. This assessment can help the nurse determine the level of neurological impairment and guide further interventions and treatments.
A: Administering an antipyretic may help reduce fever but is not the priority in this situation where neurological assessment is crucial.
B: Decreasing environmental stimuli may be helpful in managing symptoms, but assessing the cranial nerves is more essential in this case.
D: Completing a vascular assessment is not a priority when dealing with suspected meningitis; neurological assessment takes precedence.
E, F, G: No further options provided.