ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam Latest Update Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Two hours after delivery the nurse assesses the client and documents that the fundus is soft, boggy, above the level of the umbilicus, and displaced to the right side. The nurse encourages the client to void. Which is the rationale for this nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A full bladder prevents normal contractions of the uterus. A full bladder can impede the involution process of the uterus by exerting pressure on it, inhibiting proper contraction. This can lead to postpartum hemorrhage and increased risk of retained placental fragments. Encouraging the client to void helps to relieve the pressure on the uterus, allowing it to contract effectively and aiding in the expulsion of lochia and prevention of complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: An overdistended bladder may press against the episiotomy causing dehiscence - While this is a potential risk, it is not directly related to fundal assessment and contraction.
C: Distention of the bladder can cause urinary stasis and infection - While true, this is not the primary concern when assessing the fundus post-delivery.
D: It makes the client more comfortable when the fundus is massaged - Massaging the fundus is a separate intervention and does
Question 2 of 5
Which site is preferred for giving an IM injection to a newborn?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis. The vastus lateralis muscle is preferred for IM injections in newborns due to its large muscle mass, minimal risk of injury to major blood vessels and nerves, and easy accessibility. It is also recommended by healthcare guidelines for infants. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for newborns due to the risk of damaging nerves and blood vessels. The rectus femoris muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns as it is less accessible and has a higher risk of injury.
Question 3 of 5
During the first twelve hours following a normal vaginal delivery, the client voids 2,000 mL of urine. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interpretation is D: Normal diuresis after delivery. After childbirth, diuresis is common due to the body eliminating excess fluid retained during pregnancy. This process helps reduce swelling and aids in returning to pre-pregnancy state. Voiding 2,000 mL in the first twelve hours is within the expected range for postpartum diuresis.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiologic response to childbirth. Urinary tract infection and high output renal failure would present with other symptoms, while excessive IV fluid use would not explain the timing or volume of urine output.
Question 4 of 5
If a pregnant client diagnosed with gestational diabetes cannot maintain control of her blood sugar by diet alone, which medication will she receive?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insulin. Insulin is the preferred medication for managing gestational diabetes as it is safe for the fetus and provides precise blood sugar control. Metformin (
A) and Glyburide (
D) are alternatives if insulin is not tolerated, but they may cross the placenta and have potential risks. Glucagon (
B) is not used for diabetes management but for treating severe hypoglycemia.
Question 5 of 5
Which assessment finding indicates that placental separation has occurred during the third stage of labor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lengthening of the umbilical cord. This indicates placental separation as the placenta detaches from the uterine wall, causing the cord to lengthen. A: Decreased vaginal bleeding is incorrect as bleeding typically increases due to separation. B: Contractions stopping is not indicative of placental separation but can occur after the placenta is delivered. C: Maternal shaking and chills are signs of postpartum shivering, not placental separation.