ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2023/24 1st Attempt & Retake Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation about manifestations of potential pregnancy complications to report to the provider. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache that is unrelieved by analgesia. This symptom could indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia, a potentially life-threatening pregnancy complication. The nurse should instruct the client to report this immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Shortness of breath when climbing stairs (
A), swelling of feet and ankles at the end of the day (
B), and Braxton Hicks contractions (
D) are common occurrences in pregnancy and not usually indicative of immediate complications.
Therefore, they do not require urgent reporting compared to the unrelieved headache as mentioned in choice C.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about steps the nurses will take to promote the security and safety of the client's newborn. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Staff members who take care of your baby will be wearing a photo identification badge." This statement promotes security and safety by ensuring that only authorized personnel are handling the newborn. It helps prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing the baby. The photo identification badge serves as visual confirmation of the staff members' credentials and authority. This measure enhances the client's peace of mind and trust in the healthcare team.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Carrying the baby to the nursery for procedures may not guarantee security as it could expose the baby to unnecessary risks.
B: Documenting visitor relationships is important but does not directly address the safety and security of the newborn.
C: Sharing a bed with the baby can increase the risk of accidental suffocation or other sleep-related risks.
Overall, choice D is the most direct and effective way to ensure the security and safety of the newborn.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation during a routine prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling of the face. This finding may indicate a serious condition called preeclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, posing risks to both the mother and baby. Reporting this promptly allows for timely management and monitoring.
Incorrect choices:
B: Varicose veins in the calves are common in pregnancy due to increased blood volume and pressure on veins, usually not an urgent concern.
C: Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema is a mild swelling often seen in pregnancy, which is typically expected and not alarming at this stage.
D: Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks, known as melasma or "mask of pregnancy," is a common cosmetic change in pregnancy, not requiring immediate medical attention.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. At 26 weeks of gestation, newborns are expected to have minimal arm recoil based on the New Ballard Score, as their muscle tone is typically low. This indicates immaturity and aligns with the developmental stage of a premature infant. The other choices are incorrect because: B: A popliteal angle of 90° is more indicative of a term infant. C: Creases over the entire foot sole are also seen in term infants, not premature infants. D: Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds are associated with breast development in term infants, not preterm infants.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Active phase. At 9cm dilation, the client is transitioning from the latent phase to the active phase of the first stage of labor. In the active phase, contractions are stronger and more frequent, leading to increased rectal pressure and cervical dilation. This phase typically ranges from 6-10cm dilation. Passive descent (
A) refers to the early phase of labor when the cervix is dilating but contractions are mild. Early phase (
C) is characterized by 0-3cm dilation. Descent (
D) is not a recognized phase of labor. The client's symptoms align with the characteristics of the active phase, making option B the correct choice.