ATI RN
ATI Fundamental Proctored Exam 2024-2025 Online Practice 250 Simulated Exam Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning to monitor a client for dehydration following several episodes of vomiting and an increase in the client's temperature. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is dehydrated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity 1.034. Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, and a value of 1.034 indicates highly concentrated urine, which is a sign of dehydration. When the body is dehydrated, the kidneys conserve water, leading to concentrated urine.
Choice B, a bounding pulse, is a sign of fluid volume overload rather than dehydration.
Choice C, high blood pressure, is not a direct indicator of dehydration.
Choice D, distended neck veins, may be seen in conditions like heart failure but are not specific to dehydration. Overall, urine specific gravity is the most direct and reliable indicator of dehydration in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse in an extended-care facility is reinforcing teaching with a group of newly licensed nurses about the expected physiologic changes of aging. Which of the following information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale:
A: With aging, the lens of the eye becomes less flexible, leading to difficulty seeing due to glare.
B: Aging affects the cough reflex, making it less effective in clearing the respiratory tract.
C: Bladder capacity decreases with age due to decreased muscle tone and elasticity.
E: Intervertebral discs lose water content with age, leading to dehydration and decreased flexibility.
Incorrect
Choices:
D: Systolic blood pressure tends to increase with age, not decrease.
F, G: No information provided to analyze these options.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about preventing health care-associated infections (HAIs). The nurse should include which of the following as a common cause of these infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary catheterization. This is a common cause of HAIs due to the introduction of bacteria into the urinary tract. Catheters provide a direct pathway for bacteria to enter the body, leading to infections such as urinary tract infections. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Chlorhexidine washes are actually used to prevent infections by killing bacteria on the skin.
C: Malnutrition can weaken the immune system and make individuals more susceptible to infections, but it is not a direct cause of HAIs.
D: Multiple caregivers can increase the risk of infections if proper hygiene practices are not followed, but it is not a specific cause of HAIs like urinary catheterization.
Question 4 of 5
A charge nurse in a long-term care facility will be implementing a new protocol to meet the Joint Commission's National Safety Goal of preventing health care-associated pressure ulcers. When informing the staff nurses about the new standard, the nurse should emphasize that which of the following actions is the priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Identify the clients at greatest risk for development of pressure ulcers. This is the priority because it allows for targeted interventions to be implemented for those most vulnerable, maximizing resources and preventing potential harm. Turning and positioning clients, using barrier creams, and ensuring adequate nutrition are all important aspects of pressure ulcer prevention, but they should be tailored based on individual risk assessment. Supervising nutritional intake is crucial, but not the immediate priority in preventing pressure ulcers. Identifying high-risk clients allows for proactive measures to be taken, making it the most critical step in meeting the National Safety Goal.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is collecting data as part of a neurological examination of a client who is receiving treatment for head trauma. Which of the following observations will give the nurse information about the function of the third cranial nerve?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evaluate the client's pupillary reaction to light. The third cranial nerve, also known as the oculomotor nerve, controls the pupillary response by constricting the pupil when exposed to light. By observing the client's pupillary reaction to light, the nurse can assess the function of the third cranial nerve. This test specifically targets the parasympathetic fibers of the nerve, which control pupillary constriction.
Choice A (Instruct the client to look up and down without moving his head) would assess the function of the fourth cranial nerve (trochlear nerve).
Choice B (Observe the client's ability to smile and frown) would assess the function of the seventh cranial nerve (facial nerve).
Choice D (Ask the client to shrug his shoulders against passive resistance) would assess the function of the eleventh cranial nerve (accessory nerve).
Therefore, choices A, B, and D are