ATI RN
ATI RN Fundamental Proctored Exam With NGN Graded Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving opioid analgesia for adverse effects of the medication. Which of the following effects should the nurse anticipate? Select all.
Correct Answer: C, D, E
Rationale: The correct answers are C, D, and E. Opioid analgesics can cause respiratory depression (bradypnea), leading to shallow breathing. Orthostatic hypotension is a potential side effect due to vasodilation. Nausea is common with opioid use as they can stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Urinary incontinence (
A) and diarrhea (
B) are not typically associated with opioid analgesics. So, the nurse should anticipate monitoring for bradypnea, orthostatic hypotension, and nausea as potential adverse effects.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who takes haloperidol (Haldol) for the treatment of schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse document as extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)? Select all.
Correct Answer: B, C, E
Rationale: The correct answer is B, C, and E. Fine motor tremors, acute dystonias, and uncontrollable restlessness are all extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) commonly associated with haloperidol use. Fine motor tremors refer to involuntary shaking movements, acute dystonias are sudden muscle contractions causing abnormal postures, and uncontrollable restlessness is known as akathisia. These are classic EPS manifestations caused by dopamine blockade in the basal ganglia. Orthostatic hypotension (
A) is a side effect related to alpha-adrenergic blockade, not EPS. Decreased level of consciousness (
D) is not typically associated with EPS but may indicate overdose or other complications.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching about managing anticholinergic effects for a client who has a new prescription for oxybutynin (Ditropan XL). Which of the following are appropriate to include in the teaching? Select all.
Correct Answer: A, B, E
Rationale: The correct choices for managing anticholinergic effects of oxybutynin are A, B, and E. A: Taking frequent sips of water helps combat dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect. B: Wearing sunglasses when exposed to sunlight helps with sensitivity to light, another anticholinergic effect. E: Urinating prior to taking the medication helps reduce urinary retention, a potential side effect.
Incorrect choices: C: Using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to managing anticholinergic effects. D: Taking the medication with an antacid may interfere with its absorption and is not recommended.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the reported medications of a client who was recently admitted. The medications include cimetidine (Tagamet) and imipramine hydrochloride (Tofranil). Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine hydrochloride, the nurse should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of imipramine hydrochloride toxicity. Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of imipramine hydrochloride, leading to increased levels of imipramine in the body. This can result in a higher concentration of imipramine, potentially causing toxicity. This interaction is known as a pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction.
Incorrect choices:
A: Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine - This is incorrect because cimetidine's therapeutic effects are not directly impacted by its interaction with imipramine.
C: Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine - This is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that the interaction with imipramine decreases the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine.
D: Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine hydrochloride - This is incorrect as the increased risk of toxicity does not equate to increased therapeutic effects.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in an outpatient clinic is caring for a client who states she is trying to get pregnant. The client currently takes a Category D pregnancy risk medication for the control of seizures. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Category D medications have shown evidence of risk to the fetus in human studies but potential benefits may outweigh risks in certain situations. The nurse should inform the client about the risks and benefits of continuing the medication while trying to conceive.
Choice B is incorrect because Category D medications are not considered safe during pregnancy.
Choice C is incorrect as it is not entirely true that the risk always outweighs the benefits.
Choice D is incorrect because assuming safety without evidence is risky. The nurse should provide accurate information to guide the client's decision-making.