ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who recently had surgery for insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. MRI of the chest should be clarified because the magnetic field can interfere with the function of the pacemaker, potentially causing harm to the patient. An electrocardiogram, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram are safe imaging tests that do not interfere with the pacemaker.
Therefore, D is the correct answer that should be clarified to ensure patient safety.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following values should give the nurse the best indication of the client's renal function?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and filtered out by the kidneys. In clients with SLE, renal involvement is common. Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired renal function, as the kidneys are not effectively filtering out waste products. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps assess renal function and detect kidney damage early.
Choices B, C, D, and E are incorrect as they do not directly reflect renal function. Serum potassium levels (
B) are more indicative of electrolyte balance, white blood cell count (
C) indicates immune response, and hemoglobin level (
D) reflects oxygen-carrying capacity.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus twice daily. In acute pancreatitis, gastric acid hypersecretion can occur, leading to exacerbation of pancreatic inflammation. Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that helps reduce gastric acid secretion, which can alleviate pancreatic irritation. IV administration ensures rapid onset of action.
B: Furosemide is a diuretic used for conditions like heart failure or edema, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
C: Lactulose is a laxative used for hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
D: Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, but it does not address the underlying cause of acute pancreatitis.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) gland. Which of the following assessments should the nurse view to be an indication of a postoperative complication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Output of burgundy colored urine. This indicates possible hemorrhage, a serious complication post-TURP. Dark amber urine (
A) may suggest dehydration. Clear, light pink urine (
B) is expected due to bladder irrigation post-TURP. Bright red urine (
C) is common initially but should decrease over time. Burgundy colored urine (
D) indicates active bleeding and requires immediate intervention.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg). In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to excrete acid effectively, leading to metabolic acidosis. The pH is low (acidotic) due to the accumulation of acids. The bicarbonate (HCO3-) is low (19 mEq/L) as the kidneys are unable to reabsorb and regenerate bicarbonate effectively. The PaCO2 is low (30 mm Hg) as the respiratory system compensates by increasing the respiratory rate to blow off carbon dioxide in an attempt to normalize the pH.
Choices B, C, and D have pH values within normal range and do not reflect the expected acidosis in chronic kidney disease.