ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn Latest Update. Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malodorous discharge. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite, leading to a characteristic foul-smelling vaginal discharge. This discharge is typically greenish-yellow, frothy, and may be accompanied by itching or irritation. Thick, white discharge (choice
A) is more indicative of a yeast infection. Urinary frequency (choice
B) is not a common symptom of trichomoniasis. Vulva lesions (choice
C) are more likely to be seen in other infections or conditions.
Therefore, the malodorous discharge is the most specific finding associated with trichomoniasis at 20 weeks of gestation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic (GBS). The client is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS. She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery. This is the most appropriate response because GBS status can change throughout pregnancy, and the risk of transmitting GBS to the newborn is highest during delivery. Testing closer to the due date ensures the most accurate results.
A: Incorrect. GBS may not present with symptoms, so relying on symptoms alone is not a reliable method for testing.
B: Incorrect. Previous negative results do not guarantee current status, as GBS status can change.
C: Incorrect. Lack of indication in earlier prenatal testing does not rule out GBS at the time of delivery.
E, F, G: Not provided, but unnecessary as the correct answer has been identified.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postpartum and breastfeeding her newborn. The client reports sore nipples. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the newborn's latch while breastfeeding. This is the best action to take because sore nipples in breastfeeding mothers are often caused by an improper latch. By assessing the newborn's latch, the nurse can identify any issues such as shallow latch or improper positioning that may be causing the soreness. Correcting the latch can help alleviate the discomfort and promote effective breastfeeding.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Instructing the client to wait 4 hours between daytime feedings is not appropriate as frequent feeding is important for establishing milk supply and ensuring adequate nutrition for the newborn.
C: Having the client limit the length of breastfeeding to 5 minutes per breast may not address the root cause of sore nipples and could potentially lead to inadequate milk transfer.
D: Offering supplemental formula between feedings is not necessary and may interfere with establishing breastfeeding.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is 3 days postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cool, clammy skin. This finding could indicate hypovolemia or shock, which are serious postpartum complications. The nurse should report this to the provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention.
Other choices are not as urgent:
B: Moderate lochia serosa is expected 3 days postpartum.
C: Heart rate of 89/min is within normal range for a postpartum client.
D: BP of 120/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.
Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the cool, clammy skin over the other findings.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care immediately following birth for a newborn who has a myelomeningocele that is leaking cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics. This is crucial for preventing infection due to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid, which can lead to meningitis. Antibiotics will help reduce the risk of infection until surgical repair can be done. Monitoring rectal temperature (
B) is not directly related to addressing the myelomeningocele. Cleansing the site with povidone-iodine (
C) may further irritate the area. Surgical closure (
D) should not be delayed, as infection risk is high.