ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023 With NGN Questions and Correct Answers -Nurselytic

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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023 With NGN Questions and Correct Answers Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has a herniated disc and is scheduled for a peripheral nerve block. The client tells the nurse, 'I am afraid to have this procedure.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale:
Rationale: Option D is correct as it acknowledges the client's fear and opens the door for a discussion about their concerns, allowing the nurse to address them. It shows empathy and promotes client-centered care. Option A focuses solely on needles, which may not address the client's overall fear. Option B dismisses the client's feelings without addressing their fear. Option C asks for the reason but may not actively engage in addressing the fear. Overall, option D is the best choice as it demonstrates active listening and a willingness to address the client's specific concerns.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I can take another dose after 2 minutes." This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because sublingual nitroglycerin is typically used for acute chest pain relief due to angina, and the client should take another dose if the pain persists after 5 minutes, up to a total of 3 doses at 5-minute intervals. This is crucial for managing angina attacks effectively.


Choice B is incorrect because the tablet should be placed under the tongue, not against the cheek and gum.
Choice C is incorrect because the tablet should not be chewed but allowed to dissolve under the tongue.
Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be taken at the onset of chest pain, not after the pain begins, for optimal efficacy.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels." This response is correct because vaginal dryness and itching are common symptoms of vaginal atrophy, which is often caused by decreased estrogen levels in older adult women. The nurse's acknowledgment and explanation of this physiological change can help the client understand the root cause of her symptoms and guide further discussion on appropriate treatment options, such as hormone therapy or vaginal moisturizers.


Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the client's discomfort without addressing the underlying cause.
Choice B is incorrect as it provides potentially harmful advice without addressing the issue.
Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the condition of vaginal tissue in older women.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking telmisartan. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates that the medication has been effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease in blood pressure. Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker used to treat hypertension by lowering blood pressure.
Therefore, a decrease in blood pressure would indicate that the medication has been effective.
Choice A, blood glucose of 110 mg/dL, is unrelated to the action of telmisartan.
Choice C, increase in urinary output, is not a direct effect of telmisartan.
Choice D, respiratory rate of 10/min, is not a typical indicator of the effectiveness of telmisartan in managing hypertension.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the femur. Which of the following assessments should be the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain assessment. Pain assessment should be the nurse's priority because postoperative pain management is crucial for the client's comfort, recovery, and overall well-being. Uncontrolled pain can lead to complications such as decreased mobility, respiratory issues, and delayed healing. Assessing and managing pain promptly can also prevent potential complications and promote early mobilization. The other choices are not the nurse's priority in this scenario. The Braden Scale assesses the risk of pressure ulcers, Morse Fall Risk Scale assesses the risk of falls, and nutritional assessment is important but not the priority immediately post-ORIF surgery.

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