RN ATI Maternal Newborn 2023 with NGN -Nurselytic

Questions 59

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RN ATI Maternal Newborn 2023 with NGN Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation during a routine prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling of the face. Facial swelling in pregnancy could be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. This requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Varicose veins in the calves (
B) are common in pregnancy but do not pose an immediate threat. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema (
C) is a common finding in pregnancy and typically not concerning unless it worsens. Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks (
D) is also a common occurrence during pregnancy known as "the mask of pregnancy" and is not a cause for alarm.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Minimal arm recoil. In preterm infants, particularly those born at 26 weeks of gestation, minimal arm recoil is expected due to underdeveloped muscle tone. This is a characteristic finding in the New Ballard Score assessment for preterm newborns. Option B, popliteal angle of 90°, is incorrect as preterm infants typically have a popliteal angle greater than 90°. Option C, creases over the entire foot sole, is also incorrect as preterm infants usually have a smooth foot sole without creases. Option D, raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds, is not relevant to the assessment of gestational age in preterm newborns.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Descent. At 9 cm dilation, the client is in the second stage of labor, which consists of the descent and birth of the baby. Increasing rectal pressure indicates fetal descent and impending birth. Contractions 2-3 min apart lasting 80-90 seconds are characteristic of the active phase of the second stage of labor. The passive descent phase occurs earlier when the cervix is not fully dilated. The early phase is part of the first stage of labor. Active labor typically begins when the cervix is around 6 cm dilated.
Therefore, D is the correct choice as it aligns with the client's symptoms and stage of labor progression.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following conditions is an indication for fetal assessment using electronic fetal monitoring?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligohydramnios. Electronic fetal monitoring is indicated for assessing fetal well-being in pregnancies with conditions that may compromise fetal oxygenation, such as oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios is a condition where there is an insufficient amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus, which can lead to fetal distress. Electronic fetal monitoring helps track the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions to detect signs of distress. Hyperemesis gravidarum (
B), leukorrhea (
C), and periodic tingling of the fingers (
D) are not indications for fetal monitoring as they do not directly impact fetal well-being.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased platelet count. In idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), there is a decrease in platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets. This can lead to bleeding tendencies. Other choices are incorrect because in ITP, there is no significant change in ESR (
B), megakaryocytes may be increased or normal (
C), and WBC count is usually normal or slightly elevated (
D).

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