ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn level 3 Final Exam 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is 27 weeks of gestation and has pre eclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 60,000/ mm. In pre-eclampsia, a low platelet count indicates thrombocytopenia, a serious complication that can lead to bleeding. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management. A: Hemoglobin level is within normal range and not a priority in pre-eclampsia. C: Creatinine level is normal and not directly related to the complications of pre-eclampsia. D: Urine protein concentration is elevated, which is expected in pre-eclampsia and should be monitored, but not as urgent as low platelet count.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 2 days postpartum and wants to continue using her diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: You should have your provider refit you for a new diaphragm. This is important because postpartum changes, such as weight gain or loss, can affect the fit of the diaphragm. A proper fit is crucial for effective contraception. Storing the diaphragm in sterile water (
B) is incorrect as it can damage the device. Using oil-based lubricants (
A) is not recommended as they can weaken the diaphragm. Keeping the diaphragm in place for 4 hours after intercourse (
C) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of infection.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prenatal care and is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 hour glucose tolerance test. At 24-week prenatal appointment, screening for gestational diabetes is crucial. This test helps identify any glucose intolerance in pregnant women. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Rubella titer is typically done earlier in pregnancy to assess immunity. C: Group B strep culture is usually done around 35-37 weeks to determine if the mother needs antibiotics during labor. D: Blood type and Rh testing are important but are usually done earlier in pregnancy to determine if the mother is Rh negative and needs Rhogam.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of the following clinical findings should indicate to the nurse the client has hyperglycemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urination. Hyperglycemia in gestational diabetes mellitus leads to elevated blood glucose levels, causing the kidneys to work harder to filter and remove excess sugar from the blood. This results in increased urination (polyuria) as the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine. Double vision (
A) is more indicative of neurological issues, sweating (
C) can be due to various reasons such as anxiety or hormonal changes, and dizziness (
D) may be related to blood pressure changes or inner ear problems.
Therefore, increased urination is the most specific clinical finding associated with hyperglycemia in gestational diabetes mellitus.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelets 100,000/mm3. This finding is abnormal in a newborn and could indicate a potential bleeding disorder or thrombocytopenia, which requires immediate attention from the provider to assess and manage appropriately.
Choice A (Blood glucose 58 mg/dL) is within normal range for a newborn.
Choice B (Hematocrit 48%) and D (Hemoglobin 16 g/dL) are also within normal limits for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting.