ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam Latest Update Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 38 week gestation newborn weighs 4020 grams, is sluggish, and has limp muscle tone. The baby experienced a broken clavicle during delivery. Based on this information, which can the nurse conclude about the baby?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Large for gestational age. A newborn weighing 4020 grams at 38 weeks is considered large for gestational age. The sluggishness and limp muscle tone can be attributed to the baby's size, which can make movement more challenging. The broken clavicle could have occurred during delivery due to the baby's size and the forces involved. Neonatal abstinence symptoms (choice
A) typically present with irritability, tremors, and poor feeding, not sluggishness. Congenital cardiac defects (choice
C) usually manifest with cyanosis, tachypnea, and poor feeding. Respiratory depression (choice
D) is characterized by poor respiratory effort, not sluggishness and limp muscle tone.
Question 2 of 5
Which assessment finding suggests thrombophlebitis in a postpartum client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a positive Homan's sign, calf warmth, and pain are classic signs of thrombophlebitis in a postpartum client. A positive Homan's sign indicates pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot, which can indicate a blood clot in the leg veins. Calf warmth and pain are also indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis.
Choices A and B are incorrect because they relate to pulmonary embolism, not thrombophlebitis.
Choice C describes signs of sepsis or intra-abdominal pathology, not specifically thrombophlebitis.
In summary, the key indicators of thrombophlebitis in a postpartum client are a positive Homan's sign, calf warmth, and pain, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
A client comes to the clinic to confirm that she is pregnant. Her last menstrual period was January 31st. According to Naegele's rule, when should the client expect to deliver?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: November 7. Naegele's rule estimates the due date by adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting 3 months, and adding 1 year. LMP is January 31, so adding 7 days gives February 7. Subtracting 3 months gives November 7. Other choices are incorrect as there is no November 31, December 7 is too far ahead, and December 24 is also too far from the estimated due date.
Question 4 of 5
Which procedure should be avoided for the client known to have a placenta previa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A sterile vaginal exam. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or fully covering the cervix, making a vaginal exam risky due to potential disruption of the placenta and causing severe bleeding. This procedure should be avoided to prevent harm to the client and the baby. A: A non-stress test, D: An abdominal ultrasound, and B: A urinary catheterization are safe procedures that do not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.
Question 5 of 5
A woman in the first trimester comes to the clinic with vaginal bleeding. The physician determines that the fetus has died and that the placenta, fetus, and tissues still remain in the uterus. How should the findings be documented?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died but has not been expelled from the uterus yet. The findings should be documented as a missed abortion because the fetus has not been passed naturally. This is different from a complete abortion (
A) where all products of conception have been expelled, a stillborn abortion (
B) which is not a recognized medical term, and an incomplete abortion (
D) where some products of conception remain in the uterus.
Therefore, based on the scenario described, the most appropriate term to document the findings is missed abortion.