ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Nurs 200 Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes reports a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL and symptoms of a sore throat, cough, and fever. What advice should the nurse give to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels every 4 hours and notifying the doctor if it continues to rise is the best advice. When a patient with diabetes is sick, their blood glucose levels can rise due to the stress the body is under.
Question 2 of 5
The client, on an intensified insulin regimen, consistently has a fasting blood glucose between 70 and 80 mg/dL, a postprandial blood glucose level below 200 mg/dL, and a hemoglobin A1c level of 5.5%. What is the nurse's interpretation of these findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client's fasting blood glucose level, postprandial blood glucose level, and hemoglobin A1c level are all within the target range for good blood glucose control in diabetes.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has returned to the unit following a peripheral artery angiogram with a stent insertion. Four hours post-procedure, the nurse can no longer palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse and the foot is cold and dusky. What should be the nurse's immediate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is the correct immediate action. The symptoms suggest a possible occlusion of the stent, a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse identifies the problem of Fluid Volume Excess for a patient. Which assessment finding validates this problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fluid Volume Excess (FVE), or hypervolemia, refers to an isotonic expansion of the ECF due to an increase in total body sodium content and an increase in total body water. One of the defining characteristics of FVE is an increase in urine specific gravity.
Therefore, a urine specific gravity of 1.012 can validate the problem of Fluid Volume Excess for a patient.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is explaining to a patient why oral antihyperglycemic agents are not effective in Type 1 diabetes. What is the reason?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: People with Type 1 diabetes have little or no insulin that can be released due to the destruction of pancreatic β-cells, making oral antihyperglycemic agents ineffective.