ATI RN
ATI Maternal Final Exam Questions
Extract:
A client with severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ambulation is contraindicated in severe preeclampsia due to seizure risk; bed rest is typically prescribed, requiring clarification of this order.
Extract:
A client who is 12 hr postpartum following a vaginal delivery
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 12 hours postpartum, the fundus should be firm and at the umbilicus level, indicating proper uterine involution and reduced bleeding risk.
Extract:
A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has severe preeclampsia
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following is an expected finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia often causes headaches due to cerebral vasospasm and increased intracranial pressure, a common symptom requiring monitoring.
Extract:
A client 2 hr post-vaginal birth receiving lactated Ringer's with 25 units oxytocin, with large rubra lochia and BP 146/94 mm Hg
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who experienced a vaginal birth 2 hr ago. The client is receiving an IV of lactated Ringer's with 25 units of oxytocin infusing and has large rubra lochia. Vital signs include blood pressure 146/94 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and respiratory rate 18/min. The nurse reviews the prescriptions from the provider. Which of the following prescriptions requires clarification?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methylergonovine is contraindicated with hypertension (BP 146/94 mm Hg) due to risk of hypertensive crisis, requiring clarification.
Extract:
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Internal examinations in placenta previa risk dislodging the placenta, causing severe bleeding, which is the primary reason to avoid them.