ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse investigate further?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A concurrent prescription for tadalafil. Metoprolol and tadalafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a potential significant drop in blood pressure. This combination can result in severe hypotension, especially in patients with hypertension. The nurse should investigate further to prevent adverse effects like dizziness, syncope, or even cardiovascular collapse.
Incorrect choices:
A: A history of left-sided heart failure - Although this is a risk factor for metoprolol, it does not require immediate investigation in this scenario.
B: Recently treated bilateral pneumonia - This finding is not directly related to the prescription of metoprolol and does not pose an immediate risk.
D: Diet-controlled Type 2 diabetes mellitus - This condition does not interact significantly with metoprolol and does not require immediate investigation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. The nurse should anticipate which of the following medications for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enoxaparin. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin used for preventing blood clots postoperatively, which is crucial for a hip arthroplasty patient due to the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Aspirin (
A) is not the first-line choice for postoperative prophylaxis. Alteplase (
B) is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots and not for prevention. Clopidogrel (
C) is an antiplatelet medication and may not provide sufficient anticoagulation for postoperative management.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive a unit of packed RBCs. The nurse should prime the blood administration tubing using which of the following IV solutions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 0.9% sodium chloride. This solution, also known as normal saline, is the appropriate IV solution for priming blood administration tubing because it is isotonic and compatible with blood products. The osmolarity of 0.9% sodium chloride closely matches that of blood, minimizing hemolysis and other adverse effects during blood transfusion. Dextrose solutions (choice A and
D) are not recommended for priming tubing as they can cause hemolysis. Lactated Ringer's solution (choice
C) is not ideal for blood transfusions due to potential electrolyte imbalances.
Therefore, choice B is the safest and most compatible option for priming blood administration tubing.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse on an oncology unit is preparing to administer doxorubicin to a client who has breast cancer. Prior to beginning the infusion, the nurse verifies the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of the medication. For which of the following reasons is this verification necessary?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy. Doxorubicin is known to be cardiotoxic, with the risk of developing cardiomyopathy increasing with higher cumulative doses. This verification is necessary to prevent potential cardiac complications in the client.
Choice A is incorrect because exceeding the dose limit would not directly cause extravasation.
Choice B is incorrect as red tinged urine and sweat are not specific to exceeding the cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin.
Choice D is incorrect as myelosuppression is a known side effect of doxorubicin but is not directly related to exceeding the cumulative dose limit.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin IVPB over 20 min. Available is cefazolin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate the IV infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), we use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL × drop factor) ÷ Time for infusion in minutes.
In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the time for infusion is 20 minutes.
So, (100 mL × 15 gtt/mL) ÷ 20 min = 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 gtt/min.
Therefore, the correct answer is A: 75.
Other choices are incorrect because they do not correspond to the calculated rate based on the given parameters.