ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2019 I Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has bipolar disorder prior to the administration of lithium carbonate. The client's lithium level is 0.6 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Request a dosage increase from the provider. A lithium level of 0.6 mEq/L is below the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for bipolar disorder.
Therefore, the nurse should request a dosage increase to bring the lithium level within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.
Incorrect
Choices:
A: Assisting the client to a left lateral position is not necessary based on the lithium level result.
B: Implementing fluid restrictions is not indicated as the lithium level is not high.
D: Hemodialysis is used in cases of severe lithium toxicity, not when the level is below the therapeutic range.
Summary: The correct action is to adjust the dosage to achieve the therapeutic level. Other options are not appropriate given the client's current lithium level.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is to start therapy with lovastatin. The nurse should prepare the client for which of the following diagnostic assessments?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver function tests. Lovastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and can potentially cause liver damage as a side effect.
Therefore, it is essential to monitor the client's liver function regularly. This includes assessing liver enzymes such as ALT, AST, and bilirubin levels. This diagnostic assessment helps detect any liver abnormalities early on and allows for appropriate intervention.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Western blot analysis is used to detect specific proteins and is not relevant to lovastatin therapy.
B: Pancreatic enzymes are not typically affected by lovastatin therapy.
C: Exercise electrocardiography is used to assess heart function and is not directly related to lovastatin therapy.
In summary, liver function tests are the most appropriate diagnostic assessment to monitor for potential side effects of lovastatin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and a prescription for cyclosporine. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory values to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creatinine 1.5 mg/dL. In a client taking cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant medication, monitoring renal function is crucial due to potential nephrotoxicity. An elevated creatinine level (1.5 mg/dL) indicates impaired kidney function, which could be a side effect of cyclosporine. Reporting this to the provider is essential for further assessment and potential medication adjustment.
Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the potential nephrotoxic effects of cyclosporine.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take to minimize bleeding following the injection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Grasp skin between thumb and forefinger throughout the injection. By grasping the skin, the nurse can stabilize the tissue and prevent unnecessary movement, reducing the risk of bleeding. This technique ensures accurate needle placement and minimizes tissue trauma. Using the Z-track method (choice
A) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections and is more commonly used for intramuscular injections to prevent medication leakage. Aspirating the syringe (choice
C) is not required for subcutaneous injections as blood vessels are not typically penetrated. Massaging the site (choice
D) can actually increase the risk of bleeding by causing tissue damage.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates the nurse should decrease the infusion rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT 90 seconds. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A result of 90 seconds indicates the blood is taking longer to clot, suggesting the client may be at risk for bleeding.
Therefore, the nurse should decrease the heparin infusion rate to prevent excessive anticoagulation.
A: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and does not directly relate to heparin therapy.
C: INR of 1.2 is within the therapeutic range for heparin, so no adjustment is needed.
D: Platelet count of 350,000/mm is within normal limits and does not necessitate a change in heparin infusion rate.