ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2019 II Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a peripheral IV infusion and notes infiltration of fluid into the tissues surrounding the insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to elevate the extremity. Elevating the extremity helps to reduce swelling and minimize further infiltration of fluid into the tissues. By raising the affected arm, gravity helps to facilitate the return of the infiltrated fluid back into the bloodstream, preventing potential complications such as tissue damage or infection. Slowing the infusion rate (Option
A) may not be sufficient to address the existing infiltration. Flushing the IV catheter (Option
B) is not indicated in this situation. Applying pressure to the IV site (Option
D) may exacerbate tissue damage.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: The correct answer includes polypharmacy, multiple health problems, decreased percentage of body fat, and decreased renal function as risk factors for adverse drug reactions in older adults. Polypharmacy increases the likelihood of drug interactions and side effects. Multiple health problems can complicate medication management. Decreased body fat can lead to higher medication concentrations in the bloodstream, increasing the risk of toxicity. Decreased renal function can impair drug clearance, prolonging drug effects.
Choices C, F, and G are incorrect because an increased rate of absorption is not a typical risk factor for adverse drug reactions in older adults, and no information is provided for choices F and G.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluid retention. Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione, is known to cause fluid retention by increasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. This can lead to edema and exacerbate heart failure. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload such as weight gain, edema, and dyspnea is essential. Insomnia (
B), orthostatic hypotension (
C), and tinnitus (
D) are not commonly associated with pioglitazone. A detailed health history and medication review are essential for optimal client care.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in shock and is receiving an infusion of albumin. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increase in BP. Albumin is a colloid solution used in shock to increase blood volume and improve circulation, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. PaCO2 and oxygen saturation levels would not be directly affected by albumin infusion. There would not be a decrease in protein since albumin is a protein itself.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor for an increase in blood pressure as the expected finding when a client in shock is receiving an infusion of albumin.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing a client's 0800 laboratory values at 1100. The nurse notes that the client received heparin at 1000. Which of the following laboratory values warrants an incident report?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: aPTT 90 seconds. The reason this warrants an incident report is because aPTT measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy, and the normal range is usually 25-35 seconds. A value of 90 seconds indicates potential overdose and increased risk of bleeding. This deviation from the therapeutic range is crucial information that needs to be reported to ensure patient safety.
Other choices are not as critical for an incident report:
A: INR 1.6 is slightly elevated but not typically a cause for immediate concern.
B: WBC 6,000/mm3 is within normal limits and not directly related to heparin administration.
C: Hgb 16 g/dL is a normal hemoglobin level and does not indicate an adverse event related to heparin.