ATI LPN
Skin Integrity NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
You know that an older adult patient who had open reduction and internal fixation of the right femur is at risk for infection. A desired result of interventions would be that the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infection prevention post-ORIF targets no wound infection (Choice D), per surgical outcomes, reflecting effective care (e.g., antibiotics). Fever limit is a sign, not result. Reporting signs is action, not outcome. Aseptic understanding is education. No infection is the ultimate goal, an LPN aim, making it the correct result.
Question 2 of 5
The need for protective isolation is being explained to the patient who asks, 'How can I hug my children?' An appropriate response would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protective isolation shields immunocompromised patients. Explaining microbial risk and immune weakness justifies restrictions, per patient education, fostering understanding. Glass door or intercom are logistics, not reasons. Time reassurance is vague. Clarity on infection risk supports compliance, an LPN role, making it the correct response.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with osteoarthritis has daily right knee pain. This type of pain usually has the best result if treated by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Osteoarthritis pain inflammatory, mechanical responds best to ibuprofen (Choice B), an NSAID reducing inflammation, per arthritis guidelines. Oxycodone is for severe pain, not first-line. Lyrica targets neuropathic pain. Prednisone is for flares, not daily. Ibuprofen balances efficacy and safety, an LPN med option, making it the correct treatment.
Question 4 of 5
You are caring for a patient with an epidural infusion. Which sign requires immediate provider notification?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epidural analgesia risks hypotension from vasodilation. BP 80/60 signals shock, needing urgent notification, per anesthesia protocols. Temp 99.5°F is mild. Respirations 12/min are normal. Low urine is concerning but slower. Hypotension threatens perfusion, an LPN alert, making it the correct sign.
Question 5 of 5
How will the nurse stage a shallow open reddish, pink ulcer without slough on the right heel?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A shallow, reddish-pink ulcer without slough is a Stage II pressure ulcer (Choice B), per NPUAP staging, indicating partial-thickness loss of epidermis/dermis, often appearing as a blister or crater. Stage I is intact skin with redness. Stage III involves deeper fat exposure. Stage IV shows bone or muscle. The heel's description open, shallow, no slough fits Stage II's clinical presentation, requiring moisture-retentive dressings, making this the correct staging for nurses to document and treat appropriately.